Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except_________________?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Disorders of coagulation
C. Laryngospasm
D. Extreme hyper-Kalemia
Answer» C. Laryngospasm
2.

Therapetic index indicates____________?

A. Drug toxicty
B. Drug potency
C. Drug safety
D. Drug’s Lethal effect
Answer» D. Drug’s Lethal effect
3.

Therapeutic uses of a – adrenoceptor blockers include all of the following EXCEPT______________?

A. Hypertension
B. Amxiety
C. Peripheral Vascular disease
D. Benign Prostatic hypertrophy
Answer» C. Peripheral Vascular disease
4.

The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

A. 1 – 18 days
B. 19 – 55 days
C. 56 – 85 days
D. II trimester
Answer» C. 56 – 85 days
5.

The toxic effect of Beta receptor antagonists includes all the following EXCEPT____________?

A. Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
B. Worsening of preexisting asthma
C. Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
D. Precipitate migrainic effect
Answer» E.
6.

The therapeutic advantage that pencillin V has over pencillin G is____________?

A. More reliable oral obsorption
B. Greater resistance to pencillinase
C. Slower renal excretion
D. Broader antibacterial spectrum
Answer» B. Greater resistance to pencillinase
7.

The statement Not true of Selective Cox – 2 inhibitor is________________?

A. The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID
B. They do not offer the cardio protective effect
C. Safe in patients with renal insufficiency
D. Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect
Answer» D. Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect
8.

The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

A. Morbidity index
B. Moratality index
C. Anesthetic ratio
D. Therapeutic index
Answer» E.
9.

The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is_______________?

A. 1 ml / min
B. 2.5 ml / min
C. 1 mg / min
D. 2.5 mg / min
Answer» B. 2.5 ml / min
10.

The principle therapeutic action of the glucocorticoid is________________?

A. Antidiuretic
B. Antianabolic
C. Anti-infective
D. Anti-inflammatory
Answer» E.
11.

The principle central action of caffeine is on the________________?

A. Cerebral cortex
B. Corpus callosum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Spinal cord
Answer» B. Corpus callosum
12.

The potent anti arrhythmic drug which has little negative ionotropic effect valuable in patients with poor left ventricular function_____________?

A. Amlodipine
B. Bidoprolo
C. Amiodarnone
D. Digoxin
Answer» E.
13.

The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include The following except_____________?

A. Hydolysis
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Conjugation
Answer» E.
14.

The oropharyngeal and oesophageal candidiasis following long-term therapy with a broad spectrum antibiotic can be best treated with____________?

A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin
C. Fluconazole
D. Sulfonates
Answer» D. Sulfonates
15.

The organ most resistant to GA is______________?

A. Spinal Cord
B. Medulla oblonagata
C. Medullary cortex
D. Cerebrum
Answer» C. Medullary cortex
16.

The oral microblal fiora of a patient on prolonged broad spectrume antibiotic therapy is predominantly____________?

A. Anaerobic
B. Gram positive organism
C. Gram negative organisms
D. Yeast and fungi
Answer» E.
17.

The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine lasts for______________?

A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 3-5 min
D. 10 min
Answer» D. 10 min
18.

The most serious side effect of drug chloramp henicol is______________?

A. Candidiasis
B. Photosensitivity
C. Bone marrow depression
D. Angioneurotic oedema
Answer» D. Angioneurotic oedema
19.

The most prominent toxic effect associated with acetominophen use is______________?

A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Haemorrhage
C. Hepatic necrosis
D. Gastric Ulceration
Answer» D. Gastric Ulceration
20.

The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________?

A. Ondensetron
B. Metaclopromide
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Dicyclomine
Answer» B. Metaclopromide
21.

The most important property in determining the induction of a general anaesthetic agent is_____________?

A. Alveolar exchage
B. Pulmonary ventilation
C. Solubility of anaesthetic in blood
D. solubility of anaesthetic in tissue
Answer» D. solubility of anaesthetic in tissue
22.

The most common type of epilepsy in children is________________?

A. Grand mal epilepsy
B. Infantile spasm
C. Petit mal
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
23.

The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is_______________?

A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Diarrhoea
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Renal failure
Answer» C. Oral candidiasis
24.

The most common cause of antibiotic – related diarrhea is____________?

A. H.pylori
B. C.difficile
C. K.pneumoniae
D. Shigella
Answer» C. K.pneumoniae
25.

The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is_____________?

A. Increases cAMP
B. Direct Vasodilator
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus
Answer» C. Calcium channel blocker
26.

The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of synthesis of_____________?

A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Protein
D. DNA
Answer» D. DNA
27.

The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol_____________?

A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 95%
Answer» D. 95%
28.

The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following effects except________________?

A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased salivation
C. Decreased sweating
D. Mydriasis
Answer» B. Decreased salivation
29.

The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from______________?

A. 1% to 10%
B. 10% to 20%
C. 20% to 30
D. 30% to 40%
Answer» B. 10% to 20%
30.

The highest risk associated with use of oral contraceptives in________________?

A. Hepatic necrosis
B. Permanent sterility
C. Thromboembolic disorders
D. Cancer of breast
Answer» D. Cancer of breast
31.

The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is_____________?

A. Tetracyclines
B. Polypeptide antibiotics
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Macrolides
Answer» E.
32.

The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT____________?

A. It is useful in emergencies
B. Aseptic precautions are required
C. Bioavailability is 100%
D. Suspensions can be administered
Answer» E.
33.

The following statements about verapamil are true except_____________?

A. It does not produce reflex tachycardia
B. It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator
C. It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia
D. It can cause constipation
Answer» D. It can cause constipation
34.

The following drugs are useful in hypertension except_____________?

A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Alpha methyl dopa
C. Beta blockers
D. Pentoxifyline
Answer» E.
35.

The following are the indications for Metronidazole except_____________?

A. Ulcerative gingivitis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Trichomonas infection
D. Streptococcal sore throat
Answer» E.
36.

The following adverse effect of penicillin is dose related___________?

A. Skin rash
B. Intersititial Nephritis
C. Drug fever
D. Encephalopathy
Answer» E.
37.

The first choice of drug for patitmal seizure is________________?

A. Phentoin sodium
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbitone
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
38.

The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as_____________?

A. 10 to 20 percent
B. 20 to 30 percent
C. 40 to 50 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer» E.
39.

The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is______________?

A. Daroperidol + Fentanyl
B. Deroperidol + Ketamine
C. Droperiodl + Ether
D. Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide
Answer» B. Deroperidol + Ketamine
40.

The drug which is contraindicated in haemophilla is_________________?

A. Aspirin
B. Penicillinium
C. Amino epsilon caproic acid
D. Dipheny 1 hydantoin
Answer» B. Penicillinium
41.

The drug which has an affinity for a receptor site and produces the intrinsic activity of the receptor cell or enzyme system is known as____________?

A. An agonist
B. A non competitive antagonist
C. A physiologic antagonist
D. A competitive antagonist
Answer» B. A non competitive antagonist
42.

The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is______________?

A. Penicillin G
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Doxycycline
Answer» D. Doxycycline
43.

The drug which gives orange colour to the urine is______________?

A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. INH
D. Streptomycin
Answer» B. Ethambutol
44.

The drug which activates plasma antithrombin -III for its anticogulant action is____________?

A. Dicumarol
B. Idphenadione
C. Heparin
D. Phenindone
Answer» D. Phenindone
45.

The drug not belonging to amide group_______________?

A. Procaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Bupivacaine
Answer» B. Xylocaine
46.

The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is___________?

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicilling G
D. Methicillin sodium
Answer» D. Methicillin sodium
47.

The drug of choice for treatment of tyhoid is____________?

A. Tetracycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Cefotaxim
Answer» D. Cefotaxim
48.

The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?

A. Scavanges free radicals
B. Enhances the production of free radicals
C. Promotes damage of DNA
D. Prevents repair of damaged DNA
Answer» B. Enhances the production of free radicals
49.

The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is______________?

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicilling G
D. Methicillin sodium
Answer» D. Methicillin sodium
50.

The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is_____________?

A. Ld50
B. Td50
C. Md50
D. Ed50
Answer» E.