Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following factors in the stephan’s curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar intake______________?

A. Physical form of sugar
B. Frequency of sugar intake
C. Ph of Plaque
D. Quantity of sugar intake
Answer» D. Quantity of sugar intake
2.

Which of the following epithelial changes commonly signify precancerous condition______________?

A. Dyskeratosis
B. Hyperkeratosis
C. Parakeratosis
D. Acanthosis
Answer» B. Hyperkeratosis
3.

Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia ?

A. Carbamazipine
B. acetaminophen
C. phenytoin sodium
D. Baclofen
Answer» C. phenytoin sodium
4.

Which of the following does not have a viral etiology ?

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Answer» D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
5.

Which of the following does not cause oral cancer in children ?

A. Herpes simplex
B. Esptein bar
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Varicella zoster
Answer» E.
6.

Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be associated with partial anodontia?

A. erythema multiformae
B. hereditary actodermal dysplasia
C. Keratosis follicularils
D. lichen planus
Answer» C. Keratosis follicularils
7.

Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ?

A. Central giant cell granuloma
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Paget’s disease of the bone
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Answer» B. Osteopetrosis
8.

Which of the following disease is known as the Kissing disease______________?

A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B. Infection mononucleosis
C. Primary syphilis
D. Recurrent apthous stomatitis
Answer» C. Primary syphilis
9.

Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?

A. Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth
B. In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not
C. Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth
D. In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not
Answer» E.
10.

Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of ocurrence of supernumerary teeth ?

A. Maxillary deciduous dentition
B. Maxillary permanent dentition
C. Mandibular deciduous dentition
D. Mandibular permanent dentition
Answer» C. Mandibular deciduous dentition
11.

Which of the following dental sequel is likely in child with a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) in the first 6 month of life_______________?

A. Retrusive maxilla
B. Enamel hypoplasia
C. Retrusive Mandible
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Answer» C. Retrusive Mandible
12.

Which of the following deficiencies are associated with the disorders of hyperplasia of salivary gland and keratinisation of the salivary gland______________?

A. Vit – A
B. Vit – B
C. Vit – C
D. Vit – K
Answer» B. Vit – B
13.

Which of the following conditions is not considered as premalignant______________?

A. Erosive lichen planus
B. Syphilitic glossitis
C. Leukoedema
D. Leukoplakia
Answer» D. Leukoplakia
14.

Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion ______________?

A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. Giant cell tumour
C. Fibrous cortical defect
D. Simple bone cyst
Answer» E.
15.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by cafe-au-lait spots, non-encapsulation and potential for malignant transformation___________?

A. Neurilemmoma
B. Neurilemmoma
C. Traumatic Neuroma
D. Solitary plasmocytoma
Answer» C. Traumatic Neuroma
16.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D. Dentinal dysplasia type I
Answer» C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
17.

Which of the following blood disease has a racial predilection ?

A. Purpura
B. Hemophilia
C. Polycythemia
D. Thalassemia
Answer» E.
18.

Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Hyperpyrexia
B. Protuberant lips and frontal bossing
C. Defective or absence of sweat glands
D. Any of the above
Answer» E.
19.

Which of the following are characteristic feature of cherubism______________?

A. Premature exfoliation of primary teeth
B. Hypoplastic defects
C. Progressive painless symmetric
D. A + C
Answer» E.
20.

Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta________________?

A. blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis
B. enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible
C. Blue sclera, brittle bones opalescent dentin
D. blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones
Answer» D. blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones
21.

Which of the following agents is of value in the postoperative care of the hemophilic patient ?

A. Vitamin K
B. Monsel’s solution
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
Answer» D. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
22.

Which is the most preferred route for drug administration in the management of chronic pain_____________?

A. Intrathecal
B. Oral
C. Subdermal
D. Intravenous
Answer» C. Subdermal
23.

Which is T cell tumor ?

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
B. Mycosis fungiodes
C. Mantel cell leukemia
D. Hairy cell leukemia
Answer» C. Mantel cell leukemia
24.

Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A. Usually arises from an infected molar
B. involves submandibular space
C. May need emergency tracheostomy
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
25.

Which is best for diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection ?

A. Smear stained with Giemsa stain
B. Smear stained with Wrist’s stain
C. Flurorescent staining of cytology smear
D. Routing cytology
Answer» D. Routing cytology
26.

Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:

A. Scleroderma
B. Parry Romberg syndrome
C. Miescher’s syndrome
D. peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Answer» C. Miescher’s syndrome
27.

Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence ?

A. Orthokeratinised
B. Parakeratinised
C. Non-Keratinised
D. Diskeratinised
Answer» C. Non-Keratinised
28.

Which disease are infections but not communicable ?

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Scarlet fever
D. Tetanus
Answer» E.
29.

Which among the following shows pesudo-epitheliometous hyperplasia_______________?

A. sq. cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell arcinoma
C. Verrucous carcinoma
D. Granular cell myoblastoma
Answer» E.
30.

What is the term for the radio opaque area found at the root apex of young permanent teeth involved with chronic pulpitis ?

A. Apical cyst
B. Apical condensing osteitis
C. Chronic apical periodontitis
D. Stage one apical osteofibroses
Answer» C. Chronic apical periodontitis
31.

What is the PH at which initiation of caries begin ?

A. 4.3-4.5
B. 5.2-5.5
C. 4.9-5.1
D. 3.5-4.5
Answer» C. 4.9-5.1
32.

What is non characteristic of Eagle’s syndrome_______________?

A. Excessive lacrimation
B. pain during mandibular movement
C. Stabbing type pain orginate in the tonsillar regions
D. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided
Answer» B. pain during mandibular movement
33.

What could be the most appropriate provisional diagnosis for multiple nodular exophytic reddish lesions of oral mucosa in an AIDS patient ?

A. Hemangioma
B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
C. Acute pseudo-membranous candidiasis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Answer» E.
34.

Wernick’s encephalopathy is caused by deficiency of______________?

A. Thiamine
B. Cyanocobalamine
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin
Answer» B. Cyanocobalamine
35.

Warthins tumor is_____________?

A. An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland
B. A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland
C. Carcinoma of the parotid gland
D. None of the above
Answer» B. A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland
36.

Warty or Cauliflower like growth is_____________?

A. Papilloma
B. fibroma
C. Lipoma
D. Torus
Answer» B. fibroma
37.

Vitamin “D” deficiency causes all except____________?

A. Widening of predentin
B. Defective calcification
C. Microdontia
D. Inter globular dentin formation
Answer» D. Inter globular dentin formation
38.

Virus responsible for infectious mononucleosis is_____________?

A. RNA paramyxo virus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Coxsackie virus A 16
Answer» D. Coxsackie virus A 16
39.

Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is salient feature of_____________?

A. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
B. Maffuci’s syndrome
C. Angioosteohypertrophy syndrome
D. Sturge weber syndrome
Answer» E.
40.

+ve pathergy test is seen in_________________?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Behcet’s disease
Answer» E.
41.

Vascular involvement and thrombosis is seen in_____________?

A. Coccidiomycosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Mucormycosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Answer» D. Histoplasmosis
42.

Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic feature of:__________?

A. Epidermolysis bullose
B. Syphilis
C. Darier-White disease
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Answer» E.
43.

Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor is:___________?

A. CEOT
B. Enameloma
C. Odontoma
D. Ameloblastoma
Answer» E.
44.

Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?

A. pemphigus
B. ANUG
C. Apthous disease
D. Lichen planus
Answer» B. ANUG
45.

Turners tooth is seen in_____________?

A. enamel hypoplasia due to hypocalcemia
B. enamel hypoplasia due to birth injuries
C. enamel hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis
D. enamel hypoplasia due to local infection or local trauma
Answer» E.
46.

Turner’s hypoplasia most commonly affects________________?

A. Deciduous maxillary anteriors
B. Deciduous mandibular anteriors
C. Permanent maxillary anteriors
D. Permanent manibular anteriors
Answer» D. Permanent manibular anteriors
47.

Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all EXCEPT_____________?

A. Zone of bacterial invasion
B. Zone which can not be remineralized
C. Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured
D. Zone that need not be removed before restoration
Answer» E.
48.

Tumour that doesn’t show spontaneous regression______________?

A. Neuroblastoma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Octeosarcoma
Answer» E.
49.

Tumors metastatic to the jaw bones are most likely to be found in the _________________?

A. Mandibular condyle
B. Posterior moral region
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Maxillary tuberosity
Answer» C. Anterior maxilla
50.

Tumor represented T2 N2 M0 is classified as_______________?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Answer» E.