Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a_____________?

A. Significant increase in number of oral bacteria
B. Shift towards more acidogenic microflora
C. Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria
D. Shift towards more aerobic microflora
Answer» C. Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria
2.

The most likely diagnosis in a 23 year old, mentally alert, male dwarf with disproportionate arm and leg to body growth, prominent forehead and retruded maxilla is_______________?

A. Cretinism
B. Pituitary dwarfism
C. Acromegaly
D. Achondroplasia
Answer» E.
3.

The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is:____________?

A. Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining
B. Friability of the epithelial lining
C. Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts
D. Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina
Answer» D. Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina
4.

The most common supernumerary tooth form is______________?

A. Tuberculated
B. Conical
C. Screw shaped
D. Incisor shaped
Answer» C. Screw shaped
5.

The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is________________?

A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Answer» B. Liver
6.

The most common site for metastasis from carcinoma of cheek_____________?

A. Brain
B. Regional lymph nodes
C. Lung
D. Liver
Answer» C. Lung
7.

The most common reported oral malignancy in HIV infection is______________?

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Verrucous carcinoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Kaposi sarcoma
Answer» E.
8.

The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A. Plemorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Muceopidermoid carcinoma
D. Adenolymphoma
Answer» D. Adenolymphoma
9.

The most common precancerous lesion for oral malignancy is____________?

A. chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Dental ulcers
D. atrophic glossitis
Answer» C. Dental ulcers
10.

The most common organism involved in a periapical abscess is:__________?

A. Strep. Pyogens
B. Strep. viridans
C. β hemolytic stretococci
D. Non hemolytic stretococci
Answer» B. Strep. viridans
11.

The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour
B. Odontoma
C. Myxoma
D. Cementifying fibroma
Answer» B. Odontoma
12.

The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A. Primordial cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Mucocele
Answer» D. Mucocele
13.

The most common malignant tumor of the gingiva is _____________?

A. Malignant
B. Sarcoma
C. Fibro-sarcoma
D. squamous cell carcinoma
Answer» E.
14.

The most common malignancy of the oral cavity is______________?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer» E.
15.

The most common intraoral location for a pigmented nevi is the_______________?

A. Hard palate
B. Soft palate
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Floor of mouth
Answer» B. Soft palate
16.

The most common congenital defect of the face and jaws is___________________?

A. Macrostomia
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Cleft lip and palate
D. Ectodermal dysplasia
Answer» D. Ectodermal dysplasia
17.

The most common complication of mumps is______________?

A. myocarditis
B. Orchitis
C. Uveitis
D. Conjunctivits
Answer» C. Uveitis
18.

The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?

A. Trauma
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Childhood illness
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer» B. Osteoarthritis
19.

The most common coagulation disorders haemophilia A and von Willebrand’s disease are due to______________?

A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency
Answer» E.
20.

The most common complication following rheumatold arthritis of the TMJ is____________?

A. Ankylosis
B. Synovial chondromatosis
C. Subluxation
D. Osteorthritis
Answer» B. Synovial chondromatosis
21.

The most common bone tumor that occurs in children is_____________?

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Metastatic carcinoma
D. Multiple myeloma
Answer» C. Metastatic carcinoma
22.

The most common bone cancer is______________?

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Metastatic bone cancer
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer» D. Squamous cell carcinoma
23.

The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is ______________?

A. Papilloma
B. Fibroma
C. Adenoma
D. Epulis
Answer» C. Adenoma
24.

The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A. Periapical cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst
Answer» C. Globulomaxillary cyst
25.

The microorganism most commonly cultured from a chronic bilateral ulcer at the corner of mouth____________?

A. Mucor
B. Candida
C. Treponema
D. Aspergillus
Answer» C. Treponema
26.

The main causative agent of Ludwig’s angina is:__________?

A. Anaerobic streptococci
B. Aerobic streptococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Legionella infection
Answer» C. Staphylococci
27.

The lesion which is erythematous, recurrent and distributed along with the sensory nerve trunk is_____________?

A. Herpes zoster
B. Erythema multiformae
C. Herpetic gingivo stomatis
D. Recurrent aphthous
Answer» B. Erythema multiformae
28.

The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?

A. valproic acid
B. carbamazepine
C. Diphen hydantoin
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Diphen hydantoin
29.

The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the_______________?

A. Enamel spindles
B. Dentinoenamel junction
C. Enamel lamellae
D. Striae of Retzius
Answer» C. Enamel lamellae
30.

The inheritance pattern of dentinogensis imperfecta is______________?

A. Homozygous
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Recessive
D. X-linked recessive
Answer» C. Recessive
31.

The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows_______________?

A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
B. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
C. Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture
D. Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts
Answer» B. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
32.

The histological appearance of “lava following around boulders in dentin dysplasia suggests_______________?

A. Attempt to repair the defective dentin
B. Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
C. Abnormal dentin formation in a disorganized fashion
D. Cascades of dentin to form root
Answer» E.
33.

The histiocytosis X is a spectrum of disorders, Which include the following condition ?

A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Hand Schuller – Christian disease
C. Letterer – Siwe disease
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
34.

The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as________________?

A. Pannus
B. Pulse granuloma
C. Baker’s cyst
D. Immune granuloma
Answer» B. Pulse granuloma
35.

The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?

A. Materia alba
B. Plaque
C. Calculus
D. All of the above
Answer» C. Calculus
36.

The following site is the common involvement in case of Myositis ossificans_______________?

A. Massetor
B. Hyoglossus
C. Stylohyoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
Answer» B. Hyoglossus
37.

The following lesion is a doubtful premalignant lesion for oral malignancy________________?

A. Leukoplakia
B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
C. Erythroplakia
D. Oral lichen planus
Answer» C. Erythroplakia
38.

The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT________?

A. Basal cell adenocarcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Adenoid Cystic carcinoma
D. Salivary duct carcinoma
Answer» B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
39.

The following are the high grade salivary gland malignancies, EXCEPT______________?

A. Basal cell adenocarcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Adenoid Cystic carcinoma
D. Salivary duct carcinoma
Answer» B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
40.

The first consideration in the differential diagnosis of a painless palatal perforation would be____________?

A. Syphilis
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Scrofuloderma
D. Actinomycosis
Answer» B. Histoplasmosis
41.

The feature that distinguishes herpes zoster from other vesiculo bullous eruption is_____________?

A. Unilateral occurrence
B. Severe burning pain
C. Prominent crusting vesicles
D. Sub epidermal bullous formation
Answer» B. Severe burning pain
42.

The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A. Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces
B. Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces
C. Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
D. Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
Answer» E.
43.

The extra – cellular polysaccharide sythesized by cariogenic streptococci in the presence of excess sucrose are best described as_______________?

A. Mucopolysaccharide
B. Dextran-like glucan
C. Glycogen – like glucan
D. Amylopectin
Answer» C. Glycogen – like glucan
44.

The explosive and widespread form of secondary syphilis in immuno compromised individual is known as________________?

A. Condylomata lata
B. Mucous patches
C. Lues maligna
D. lupus vulgaris
Answer» D. lupus vulgaris
45.

The etiology of angioedema is____________?

A. Sensitivity to acrylic resin
B. Using ACE inhibitors
C. Hereditary
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
46.

The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:___________?

A. 15-20 cell thick
B. 6-10 cell thick
C. 2-4 cell thick
D. 1-2 cell thick
Answer» C. 2-4 cell thick
47.

The enzyme glucosyl transferase secreted by Streptococcus mutans sythesizes glucans from_____________?

A. The enzyme glucosyl transferase secreted by Streptococcus mutans sythesizes glucans from_____________?
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Lactose
Answer» D. Lactose
48.

The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A. Cyst formation
B. Calcification
C. Hyalinization
D. Formation of dental granuloma
Answer» D. Formation of dental granuloma
49.

The earliest radiographic sign of osteomyelitis is___________?

A. Solitary or multiple small radiolucent areas
B. Increased granular radioopacity
C. Blurring of trabecular outlines
D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches
Answer» D. Formation of sequestrum appearing as radiopaque patches
50.

The disorder characterized by craniosynostoses, craniofacial anomalies, severe symmetrical syndactyly (cutaneous and bony fusion) of hands and feet along with prexial syndactyly and variable soft form syndactyly ?

A. Carpenter syndrome
B. Crounzon Syndrome
C. Apert Syndrome
D. Down’s syndrome
Answer» B. Crounzon Syndrome