Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The nascent RNA forms a double helix with the non – coding strand.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
2.

How many nucleotides of the growing RNA chain remain base paired with the template DNA?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 8
D. 16
Answer» B. 12
3.

The anti-freeze should have ______specific heat capacity to be compared to the specific heat capacity of the coolant.

A. zero
B. average
C. low
D. high
Answer» E.
4.

The boiling point of the coolant should be ______

A. low
B. high
C. medium
D. none of the above
Answer» C. medium
5.

The abbreviation of SCA is ______

A. supplemental Coolant Additive
B. super Cooling Additive
C. standard Coolant Additive
D. strategic Chemical Additive
Answer» B. super Cooling Additive
6.

The coolant used in heavy-duty engines should be______

A. green in color
B. fully formulated
C. concentrated
D. blue
Answer» C. concentrated
7.

In a 50% concentration of ethylene glycol (by volume) lowers the freezing point of water to ______Degree Centigrade.

A. -30
B. -50
C. -35
D. -37
E. lowers the freezing point of water to ______Degree Centigrade.a) -30b) -50c) -35d) -37
Answer» E. lowers the freezing point of water to ______Degree Centigrade.a) -30b) -50c) -35d) -37
8.

The boiling point of ethylene glycol used in the coolant is ______Degree Centigrade

A. 290
B. 195
C. 200
D. 300
Answer» C. 200
9.

The coolant is made up of three components they are ______

A. water, anti-freezer and SCA’s
B. water, fuel, and silicates
C. water, buffers and SCA’s
D. water, SCA’s and defoamers
Answer» B. water, fuel, and silicates
10.

The pH range of Coolant is ______

A. equal to or Greater than 7
B. 0
C. 0-5
D. 3-6
Answer» B. 0
11.

______ Meter is used to measure the Glycol and water ratio present in the coolant?

A. hydrometer
B. refractometer
C. galvanometer
D. voltmeter
Answer» C. galvanometer
12.

Carboxylates are added in the Coolant to prevent from ______

A. freezing
B. condensation
C. evaporation
D. corrosion
Answer» E.
13.

The qualities of the Anti-freezer must have these Qualities ______

A. average Viscosity
B. no corrosive property
C. must be Miscible
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
14.

The ratio of Ethylene glycol and Water in the coolant is ______

A. 50:50
B. 10:90
C. 30:70
D. 20:80
Answer» B. 10:90
15.

The additives which are added to lower the Freezing point of the coolant is ______

A. anti- Knocking Agent
B. temperature controller
C. anti freezer
D. isomers
Answer» D. isomers
16.

Calculate the volume of the aeration tank required for the following data:Flow: 800 m3/dBOD: 1000 mg/LF/M ratio: 0.15(extended aeration)MLSS : 3500 mg/L

A. High sludge volume index
B. Low sludge volume index
C. Low oxygen demand
D. Floc formation is less
Answer» B. Low sludge volume index
17.

Which method uses a turntable in RLG to reduce lock-in errors?

A. Intensity control
B. Rate biasing
C. Using mechanical dither
D. Random rate fixing
Answer» C. Using mechanical dither
18.

What is the cause of lock-in phenomena in RLG?

A. Backscatter
B. Low intensity
C. High intensity
D. Low standing wave ratio
Answer» B. Low intensity
19.

Which of the following systems do not use MEMS gyro?

A. Space launch vehicles
B. Flight control systems
C. Missile guidance
D. Car stability systems
Answer» B. Flight control systems
20.

Accuracy depends on ____________

A. input voltage
B. drop across the capacitor
C. magnitude and stability of pulse generator
D. magnitude of the ramp
Answer» D. magnitude of the ramp
21.

Number of pulses is related to frequency.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
22.

Application of an input voltage generates a ____________

A. linear signal at the output
B. ramp at the output
C. exponential signal at the output
D. unit step signal at the output
Answer» C. exponential signal at the output
23.

When input is positive, then output is?

A. growing exponential signal
B. decaying exponential signal
C. positive going ramp
D. negative going ramp
Answer» E.
24.

What is the main component of an integrating type DVM?

A. diode
B. amplifier
C. op amp
D. oscillator
Answer» D. oscillator
25.

Input voltage is measured by ____________

A. using a voltmeter
B. counting pulses
C. using a multimeter
D. using an ammeter
Answer» C. using a multimeter
26.

In a voltage to frequency converter type integrated DVM _____________

A. voltage is converted to time
B. voltage is converted to frequency
C. frequency is converted to voltage
D. frequency is converted to time
Answer» B. voltage is converted to frequency
27.

Which of the following parameters are given by the TAxCCRn?

A. Capture/compare input. The selected input signal can be read by this bit
B. Synchronized capture/compare input. The selected CCI input signal is latched with the EQUx signal and can be read from this bit
C. Holds the data for the comparison to the timer value in the Timer_A Register, TAR
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
28.

TAxCCTLn is a _________

A. set of 2 bits used for selecting the mode of operation of the timer
B. a register of 8 bits used for giving the count to the timer
C. a register of 16 bits used to select the compare/capture channel of the Timer_Ax
D. a register of 16 bits used to cause the timer interrupt
Answer» D. a register of 16 bits used to cause the timer interrupt
29.

All channels within Timer_A share the same timer block?

A. yes
B. no
C. cant be said
D. depends on the conditions
Answer» B. no
30.

Static testing is done using the software __________

A. Documentation
B. Manual
C. Design
D. Comment
Answer» B. Manual
31.

During ___________ testing, code is not executed.

A. Unit
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Equivalence
Answer» D. Equivalence
32.

STLC stands for ______________

A. Software Test Locale Code
B. Software Transfer Limited Code
C. Software Total Licence Control
D. Software Test Life Cycle
Answer» E.
33.

Which is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

A. Regression testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. User acceptance testing
Answer» B. Integration testing
34.

The ability to create a user-defined function (UDF) is a new feature added to ________________

A. SQL Server 6.5
B. SQL Server 7.0
C. SQL Server 2000
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
35.

Which of the user defined function will be preferred for adding two numbers?

A. Scalar
B. Inline table valued
C. Max()
D. Min()
Answer» B. Inline table valued
36.

When to choose scalar function over inline table valued function?

A. You want a single value as the result
B. One or more row’s worth of data is expected
C. You want multiple values as result
D. All of the mentioned
Answer» B. One or more row’s worth of data is expected
37.

Which of the following is the most visible benefit of user-defined function?

A. Slow performance
B. Bad optimized queries
C. Faster performance
D. All of the mentioned
Answer» D. All of the mentioned
38.

Which of the following statements cannot be included in the definition of a Transact-SQL user-defined function?

A. GET CONVERSATION GROUP
B. MOVE CONVERSATION
C. RECEIVE
D. All of the mentioned
Answer» E.
39.

Which of the following is not a limitation of user defined function?

A. User-defined functions cannot call a stored procedure, but can call an extended stored procedure
B. User-defined functions cannot make use of dynamic SQL or temp tables. Table variables are allowed
C. SET statements are allowed in a user-defined function
D. The FOR XML clause is not allowed
Answer» D. The FOR XML clause is not allowed
40.

What to TLM stand for?

A. transfer level modelling
B. triode level modelling
C. transaction level modelling
D. transistor level modelling
Answer» D. transistor level modelling
41.

What does ESL stand for?

A. EEPROM system level
B. Electronic-system level
C. Electrical system level
D. Electron system level
Answer» C. Electrical system level
42.

Which wait statement does follow duration?

A. wait for
B. wait
C. wait until
D. wait on
Answer» B. wait
43.

How many kinds of wait statements are available in the VHDL design?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer» C. 5
44.

The branch target buffer is

A. four-way set-associative memory
B. has branch instruction address
C. has destination address
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
45.

The memory device that holds branch target addresses for previously executed branches is

A. Tristate buffer
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. Branch target buffer
Answer» E.
46.

The CPU has to wait until the execution stage to determine whether the condition is met in

A. unconditional branch
B. conditional branch
C. pipelined execution branch
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. pipelined execution branch
47.

The architecture in which the hardware decides which instructions are to be issued concurrently at run time is

A. super pipelined architecture
B. multiple instruction issue
C. very long instruction word architecture
D. superscalar architecture
Answer» E.
48.

The salient feature of Pentium is

A. superscalar architecture
B. superpipelined architecture
C. superscalar and superpipelined architecture
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
49.

When are dummy variables used in continuous time convolution?

A. To change the limits of integration
B. To change the domain of integration
C. To substitute time analysis
D. To substitute frequency analysis
Answer» C. To substitute time analysis
50.

What is a dummy variable?

A. Unused variable
B. Extra variable
C. Free variable
D. Something that is used to store extra numbers
Answer» D. Something that is used to store extra numbers