Explore topic-wise MCQs in Computer Science Engineering (CSE).

This section includes 379 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Computer Science Engineering (CSE) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

101.

Absence of evidence refutes an alibi.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
102.

In confirming an alibi involving an obscure piece of equipment, if no documentation is available, the manufacturer is no longer in business, or the equipment/network is so complicated that nobody fully understands how it works, you should:

A. state that the alibi is considered unproven
B. search the internet for any pertinent information
C. recreate the events surrounding the alibi
D. contact other investigators and average their opinions
Answer» D. contact other investigators and average their opinions
103.

To demonstrate that someone is lying about an alibi, it is necessary to:

A. find evidence that clearly demonstrates the lie
B. require the suspect to submit to a polygraph
C. interrogate the suspect using a number of methods
D. show that no evidence confirming the alibi is available
Answer» B. require the suspect to submit to a polygraph
104.

Types of digital evidence that might corroborate an alibi include:

A. evidence of computer usage when the offense was supposed to occurred
B. computer records from credit cards, the telephone company, or subway ticket usage
C. gps information from mobile devices indicating the user’s location and time
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
105.

It is quite difficult to fabricate an alibi on a network successfully because:

A. an offender may not have the proper access.
B. an offender would need system administrator access level to make the necessary changes.
C. an individual rarely has the ability to falsify digital evidence on all the computers that are involved.
D. creating an alibi on a network could take months of work.
Answer» D. creating an alibi on a network could take months of work.
106.

Investigators should not rely on one piece of digital evidence when examining an alibi – they should look for an associated _______.

A. cybertrail
B. piece of physical evidence
C. statement
D. none of the above
Answer» B. piece of physical evidence
107.

Creating a histogram of times to reveal periods of high activity is an example of which form of investigative reconstruction?

A. functional
B. intentional
C. relational
D. temporal
Answer» E.
108.

The type of report that is a preliminary summary of findings is known as:

A. sitrep
B. threshold assessment report
C. full investigative report
D. field notes
Answer» C. full investigative report
109.

In crimes against individuals the ______ period leading up to the crime often contains the most important clues regarding the relationship between the offender and the victim.

A. 24-hour
B. 28-hour
C. 60-minute
D. 15-minute
Answer» B. 28-hour
110.

Investigative reconstruction is composed of three different forms. Which of the following is NOT one of those three forms?

A. functional
B. intentional
C. relational
D. temporal
Answer» C. relational
111.

A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.

A. vnp
B. vpn
C. vsn
D. vspn
Answer» C. vsn
112.

The crime scene preservation process includes all but which of the following:

A. protecting against unauthorized alterations
B. acquiring digital evidence
C. confirming system date and time
D. controlling access to the crime scene
Answer» D. controlling access to the crime scene
113.

The process model whose goal is to completely describe the flow of information in a digital investigation is known as:

A. the physical model
B. the staircase model
C. the evidence flow model
D. the subphase model
Answer» D. the subphase model
114.

The first step in applying the scientific method to a digital investigation is to:

A. form a theory on what may have occurred
B. experiment or test the available evidence to confirm or refute your prediction
C. make one or more observations based on events that occurred
D. form a conclusion based on the results of your findings
Answer» D. form a conclusion based on the results of your findings
115.

Forensic analysis involves the following:

A. assessment, experimentation, fusion, correlation, and validation
B. seizure and preservation
C. recovery, harvesting, filtering, organization, and search
D. all of the above
Answer» B. seizure and preservation
116.

An investigation can be hindered by the following:

A. preconceived theories
B. improperly handled evidence
C. offender concealment behavior
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
117.

The fact that with modern technology, a photocopy of a document has become acceptable in place of the original is known as:

A. best evidence rule
B. due diligence
C. quid pro quo
D. voir dire
Answer» B. due diligence
118.

When assessing the reliability of digital evidence, the investigator is concerned with whether the computer that generated the evidence was functioning normally, and:

A. whether chain of custody was maintained
B. whether there are indications that the actual digital evidence was tampered with
C. whether the evidence was properly secured in transit
D. whether the evidence media was compatible with forensic machines
Answer» C. whether the evidence was properly secured in transit
119.

The process of documenting the seizure of digital evidence and, in particular, when that evidence changes hands, is known as:

A. chain of custody
B. field notes
C. interim report
D. none of the above
Answer» B. field notes
120.

The following specializations exist in digital investigations:

A. first responder (a.k.a. digital crime scene technician)
B. forensic examiner
C. digital investigator
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
121.

Computers can play the following roles in a crime:

A. target, object, and subject
B. evidence, instrumentality, contraband, or fruit of crime
C. object, evidence, and tool
D. symbol, instrumentality, and source of evidence
Answer» C. object, evidence, and tool
122.

A digital Signature is

A. a bit string giving identity of a correspondent
B. a unique identification of a sender
C. an authentication of an electronic record by trying it uniquely to a key only a sender knows
D. an encrypted signature of sender
Answer» D. an encrypted signature of sender
123.

Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those involved with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.

A. criminal investigation
B. prosecution
C. defense work
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
124.

Cybertrails are advantageous because:

A. they are not connected to the physical world.
B. nobody can be harmed by crime on the internet.
C. they are easy to follow.
D. offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would have.
Answer» E.
125.

In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:

A. open computer systems
B. communication systems
C. embedded computer systems
D. none of the above
Answer» C. embedded computer systems
126.

What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence?

A. desktop, laptop, server
B. personal computer, internet, mobile telephone
C. hardware, software, networks
D. open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems
Answer» E.
127.

A valid definition of digital evidence is:

A. none of the below
B. data stored or transmitted using a computer
C. digital data of probative value
D. any digital evidence on a computer
Answer» D. any digital evidence on a computer
128.

How does machine learning benefit IDSes/IPSes?

A. by lowering the volume of attacks analyzed
B. by adding heuristic anomaly detection capabilities
C. by searching for similar patterns to known attacks
D. by helping identify signatures more quickly
Answer» D. by helping identify signatures more quickly
129.

The features of traditional IPSes are found in all of these modern systems, except:

A. next-generation firewalls
B. antimalware
C. unified threat management appliances
D. network behavior analysis systems
Answer» C. unified threat management appliances
130.

A false positive can be defined as:

A. an alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior
B. an alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to truly be nefarious activity
C. the lack of an alert for nefarious activity
D. all of the above
Answer» B. an alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to truly be nefarious activity
131.

Which is true of a signature-based IDS?

A. it cannot work with an ips
B. it only identifies on known signatures
C. it detects never-before-seen anomalies
D. it works best in large enterprises.
Answer» C. it detects never-before-seen anomalies
132.

What port does Telnet use?

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Answer» E.
133.

A full domain name is sequence of lables seperated by____

A. semicolons
B. dots
C. colons
D. none
Answer» C. colons
134.

The root of DNS tree is____

A. a string of characters
B. a string of 63 characters
C. an empty string
D. none
Answer» D. none
135.

In the DNS the names are defined in _____ sturucture

A. a linear list
B. an invertred tree
C. a graph
D. none
Answer» C. a graph
136.

DNS can use services of________using the well known port 53

A. udp
B. tcp
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
137.

The _____domains define registered hosts according to their generic behaviour.

A. generic
B. country
C. inverse
D. none
Answer» B. country
138.

The domain name space (tree) is devided into---------different sections

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. none
Answer» B. 2
139.

Why would HTTP Tunneling be used?

A. to identify proxy servers
B. web activity is not scanned
C. to bypass a firewall
D. http is a easy protocol to work with
Answer» D. http is a easy protocol to work with
140.

What is the most important activity in system hacking?

A. information gathering
B. cracking passwords
C. escalating privileges
D. covering tracks
Answer» C. escalating privileges
141.

SSL stands for?

A. secured socket layer
B. secured shell layer
C. system socket layer
D. system secured layer
Answer» B. secured shell layer
142.

What is Firewall?

A. firewalls are network based security measures that control the flow of incoming and outgoing traffic
B. firewall is a program that encrypts all programs that access the internet
C. a firewall is a program that keeps other programs from using the internet
D. firewall are the interrupts that automatically disconnect from the internet when a threat appears.
Answer» B. firewall is a program that encrypts all programs that access the internet
143.

An HTTP connection uses port _________ whereas HTTPS uses port ____________ and invokes SSL

A. 40; 80
B. 60; 620
C. 80; 443
D. 620; 80
Answer» D. 620; 80
144.

Which component is included in IP security?

A. authentication header (ah)
B. encapsulating security payload (esp)
C. internet key exchange (ike)
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
145.

IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________

A. transport layer
B. network layer
C. application layer
D. session layer
Answer» C. application layer
146.

Why would a hacker use a proxy server?

A. to create a stronger connection with the target.
B. to create a ghost server on the network.
C. to obtain a remote access connection
D. to hide malicious activity on the network.
Answer» E.
147.

Imagine a social networking web app (like Twitter) that allows users to post short blurbs of text.

A. cross-site scripting
B. sql injection
C. packet sniffing
D. a and b
Answer» E.
148.

Section 79 of the Indian IT Act declares that any 3rd party information or personal data leakage in corporate firms or organizations will be a punishable offense.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
149.

Using spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under section 67 of IT Act, 2008 and is punished with a fine of Rs. 5 Lacs.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
150.

Stealing of digital files comes under __________ of the Indian IT Act.

A. section 66-a
B. section 66-b
C. section 66-c
D. section 66-d
Answer» D. section 66-d