Explore topic-wise MCQs in Bachelor of Science in Law (BSL).

This section includes 350 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Bachelor of Science in Law (BSL) knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Presumption as to the genuineness of gazettes in electronic form has been dealt with under

A. section 81 a of evidence act .
B. section 88a of evidence act
C. section 90a of evidence act
D. section 73a of evidence act.
Answer» B. section 88a of evidence act
2.

Section 92 of Evidence Act prohibits admission of oral evidence, in respect of a written document, for the purpose of

A. contradicting its terms
B. varying its terms
C. adding to its terms
D. all the above.
Answer» E.
3.

The want or failure of consideration as contemplated under proviso 1 to section 92 of Evidence Act invalidating a document

A. is a complete want or failure
B. is a partial want or failure
C. is a substantial want or failure
D. may be complete or may be partial want or failure.
Answer» B. is a partial want or failure
4.

Under section 92 of Evidence Act oral evidence to explain the real nature of the transaction is admissible

A. where the document does not record all the terms of the contract
B. where the document records all the terms of the contract
C. where the documents is complete in itself
D. all the above.
Answer» B. where the document records all the terms of the contract
5.

Extrinsic evidence to show the meaning or supply the defects in an instrument, is prohibited under section 93, in respect of

A. ambiguitas patens
B. ambiguitas lateens
C. both (a) & (b)
D. only (b) & not (a).
Answer» B. ambiguitas lateens
6.

In criminal trials, the accused has to establish his plea mitigation or justification of an offence

A. beyond reasonable doubt
B. prima fzzcie
C. substantially
D. either (a) or (c).
Answer» C. substantially
7.

A judgment in an election petition is not one of the judgments specifically recognised by

A. section 41 of the evidence act
B. section 42 of the evidence act
C. section 56 of the evidence act
D. section 57 of the evidence act
Answer» B. section 42 of the evidence act
8.

For presumption of death under section 108 of Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of

A. 3 years
B. 7 years
C. 12 years
D. 30 years.
Answer» C. 12 years
9.

Privilege in respect of judges & magistrates under section 121 of Evidence Act relates to

A. questions which a witness cannot be compelled to answer
B. question which a witness cannot be permitted to answer
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Answer» E.
10.

Presumption as to the accuracy of maps 8: plans made by the authority of Government is contained in

A. section 81 of evidence act
B. section 82 of evidence act
C. section 83 of evidence act
D. section 84 of evidence act.
Answer» D. section 84 of evidence act.
11.

Presumption as to the accuracy of maps & plans made by the authority of Government is contained in:

A. section 81 of evidence act
B. section 82 of evidence act
C. section 83 of evidence act
D. section 84 of evidence act.
Answer» D. section 84 of evidence act.
12.

A leading question has been defined as a question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, under

A. section 140 of evidence act
B. section 141 of evidence act
C. section 142 of evidence act
D. section 143 of evidence act.
Answer» C. section 142 of evidence act
13.

Under section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be cross-examined as to previous statement in writing

A. without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness
B. only after proving the same, may be without showing the same to the witness
C. without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
D. only after proving the same & showing the same to the witness.
Answer» B. only after proving the same, may be without showing the same to the witness
14.

Under section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be contradicted as to previous statement in writing

A. without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness
B. without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
C. after proving the same may be before showing the same to the witness
D. after proving the same & showing the same to the witness.
Answer» C. after proving the same may be before showing the same to the witness
15.

A party/person who calls the witness can be permitted to cross-examine the witness so called by him, as provided

A. under section 152 of evidence act
B. under section 153 of evidence act
C. under section 154 of evidence act
D. under section 155 of evidence act.
Answer» D. under section 155 of evidence act.
16.

Section 15, Indian Evidence Act deals with a particular application of the general principle laid down in:

A. section 7, indian evidence act
B. section 10, indian evidence act
C. section 12, indian evidence act
D. section 14, indian evidence act
Answer» E.
17.

Which section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005

A. section 154
B. section 118
C. section 32
D. section 90a
Answer» B. section 118
18.

Presumption under section 113A of Evidence Act can be raised if the suicide by the married woman is committed

A. within 7 years of marriage
B. within 5 years of marriage
C. within 3 years of marriage
D. within 1 year of marriage.
Answer» B. within 5 years of marriage
19.

A tenant or licencee under section 116 of Evidence Act is estopped from denying the title of landlord

A. during the continuance of tenancy
B. after the creation of tenancy or licence
C. after the surrender of possession under tenancy or licence
D. all the above.
Answer» B. after the creation of tenancy or licence
20.

Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 gives provisions regarding proof as to elec-tronic signatures?

A. section 67
B. section 67a
C. section 67b
D. section 67c
Answer» C. section 67b
21.

_______ section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was inserted by the Criminal law (Amendment) Act, 2013.

A. section 53
B. section 53 a
C. section 119
D. section 119a
Answer» C. section 119
22.

The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in:

A. section 63 of evidence act
B. section 64 of evidence act
C. section 65 of evidence act
D. section 66 of evidence act.
Answer» D. section 66 of evidence act.
23.

Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following cases will the document become irrelevant?

A. it does not deal with a fact in issue
B. it does not deal with a relevant fact
C. it is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or record
D. it is not an entry made by public servant
Answer» D. it is not an entry made by public servant
24.

A party wants to set aside a judgement under section 44 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the fol-lowing circumstances can he do so?

A. in case the judgement was passed by a superior court
B. in case the person challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
C. in case the judgement was a result of gross negligence
D. all of these
Answer» B. in case the person challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
25.

In deciding whether the document falls in the category of unpublished official record the court

A. has the jurisdiction to inspect the documents itself
B. the court is banned from inspecting the document
C. the court can compel the production of the document for inspection
D. both (a) & (c) are correct. -
Answer» C. the court can compel the production of the document for inspection
26.

In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the declaration so made by that person shall be an evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of

A. section 17 of evidence act
B. section 19 of evidence act
C. section 20 of evidence act
D. section 21 of evidence act.
Answer» D. section 21 of evidence act.
27.

Communication in respect of the affairs of the state are privileged communication on the grounds of public policy

A. under section 123 of evidence act
B. under section 124 of evidence act
C. under section 125 of evidence act
D. under section 126 of evidence act.
Answer» B. under section 124 of evidence act
28.

In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that "Test identification parade is only an aid to investigation. The practice is not born out of prudence"?

A. siddharth vashist @ manu shzzrma v. state (nct of delhi), air 2010 sc 2352
B. shivaji v. nagendra, air 2010 sc 2261
C. s. iaiswal v. alok, air 2010 (noc) 805
D. sujata v. s.k. behem, air 2010 (noc) 812.
Answer» B. shivaji v. nagendra, air 2010 sc 2261
29.

"Relationship is not a factor to affect credibility of a witness" held by the Supreme Court in

A. s. sudershan reddy v. state of andhra pradesh, air 2006 sc 2716
B. s]/ed ibrahim v. state of andhra pradesh, air 2004 sc 2596
C. renuka bai v. state of maharashtra, air 2006 sc 3056
D. minu kumari v. state of bihar, air 2006 sc 150.
Answer» B. s]/ed ibrahim v. state of andhra pradesh, air 2004 sc 2596
30.

Proviso 1 to Section 33, Indian Evidence Act, not only covers cases of privity in estate and succession of title, but also cases where which of the following condition is met?

A. the interest of the relevant party in the second proceeding is the subject matter of the first proceeding and is consistent with and not antagonistic to the interest therein of the relevant party to the first proceeding
B. the interest of both in the answer to be given to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding is identical
C. either (a) or (b)
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer» E.
31.

The history sheet of an accused person, kept in the police station is not a man s character, as it is based on:

A. conviction
B. hearsay
C. investigation
D. none of them
Answer» C. investigation
32.

Dying declaration can be sole basis of conviction if it inspires full confidence of the court. The court should be satisfied

A. that deceased was in a fit state of mind at the time of making the statement
B. that it was not the result of tutoring, prompting or product of imagination
C. that deceased was not in a fit state of mind at the time of making the statement
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» E.
33.

For taking the dying declaration from the deceased, the presence of Magistrate is 260

A. mandatory
B. not mandatory
C. required at the request of the police
D. required at the request of the relative of the deceased
Answer» C. required at the request of the police
34.

In which case the Supreme Court held that material evidence and not the number of witnesses has to be taken note to ascertain the truth of the allegations made

A. surendra prasad tiwari v. state of uttar pradesh, air 2005 sc 125
B. syed ibrahim v. state of andhnz pradesh, air 2006 sc 2908
C. rajinder v. state of haryana, air 2006 sc 21
D. iagdish murav v. state of llttar pradesh, air 2007 sc 35
Answer» C. rajinder v. state of haryana, air 2006 sc 21
35.

An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a deed which contains a map of the property sold. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:

A. the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed need not be proved
B. the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed is irrelevant
C. the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed cannot be proved
D. none of them
Answer» D. none of them
36.

Due execution of a document more than thirty years old coming from proper custody, IS a

A. presumption of fact
B. rebuttable presumption of law
C. irrebuttable presumption-of law
D. presumption of fact & law both.
Answer» B. rebuttable presumption of law
37.

Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be presumed under section 85 of Evidence Act when executed before & authentication by

A. anotary
B. a judge
C. amagistrate
D. all the above.
Answer» E.
38.

List of facts of which the judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence Act

A. is exhaustive
B. is illustrative only
C. is both (a) & (b)
D. is neither (a) nor (b).
Answer» C. is both (a) & (b)
39.

Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?

A. section 4
B. section 6
C. section 10
D. section 8
Answer» C. section 10
40.

The possession or ownership of property of the grand father of defendant on the basis of documents 30 years old can

A. be proved
B. not to be proved
C. be proved at the option of plaintiff
D. be proved at the option of defendant
Answer» B. not to be proved
41.

Under section 15 of Evidence Act, facts showing series of similar occurrences, involving the same person are relevant

A. when it is uncertain whether the act is intentional or accidental i
B. when it is certain that the act is with guilty knowledge
C. when it is certain that the act is done innocently
D. either (b) or (c).
Answer» B. when it is certain that the act is with guilty knowledge
42.

Documents in respect of which privilege has been provided under section 123 of Evidence Act.

A. is a published official record
B. is an unpublished official record
C. both (a)&(b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer» C. both (a)&(b)
43.

Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act

A. if they by themselves create a liability
B. if they by themselves do not create a liability
C. irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer» D. either (a) or (b).
44.

A confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act

A. if made in the presence of a doctor
B. if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel
C. if made in the presence of a magistrate
D. all the above.
Answer» D. all the above.
45.

Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act:

A. if they by themselves create a liability
B. if they by themselves do not create a liability
C. irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer» D. either (a) or (b).
46.

An accused can be convicted on the basis of his extra judicial confession only if it is made before

A. a credible person
B. a police officer
C. a magistrate
D. none of these.
Answer» B. a police officer
47.

Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to a statement made by a person during an investigation under:

A. section 159 cr. p.c
B. section 161 cr. p.c
C. section 163 cr. p.c
D. section 166 cr. p.c
Answer» C. section 163 cr. p.c
48.

A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible

A. under section 8 of evidence act
B. under section 10 of evidence act
C. under section 30 of evidence act
D. both (b) & (c).
Answer» D. both (b) & (c).
49.

The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in

A. section 63 of evidence act
B. section 64 of evidence act
C. section 65 of evidence act
D. section 66 of evidence act.
Answer» D. section 66 of evidence act.
50.

The professional privilege under section 126 of Evidence Act is available in respect of communication made

A. for the purposes of professional employment
B. the cause of employment
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Answer» D. neither (a) nor (b).