Explore topic-wise MCQs in Avionics.

This section includes 53 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Avionics knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

DNA- footprinting is a suitable technique for identifying which of the following?

A. Particular t-RNA in mixture
B. Particular mRNA in mixture
C. Protein binding site within DNA
D. Introns within DNA
Answer» D. Introns within DNA
2.

Which of the following is taken as an assumption in the distributed model?

A. Mass transfer through the immobilized enzyme occurs via molecular diffusion
B. The reaction occurs at every position and the kinetics of the reaction are of the same form as observed for free enzyme.
C. All of the above
D. There is no mass transfer limitation at the outside surface of the spherical immobilized enzyme
Answer» D. There is no mass transfer limitation at the outside surface of the spherical immobilized enzyme
3.

What would happen if serum is omitted from the ELISA, but all other steps remain same?

A. The OD values would be nearly the same as the assay control
B. Anti-human Ig-conjugate would not bind and be washed away
C. Anti-human Ig-conjugate would bind non-specifically to the ELISA plate
D. Both ( and (
Answer» E.
4.

What is the behavior in which T cells and B cells constantly travel throughout the body seeking out and destroying foreign substances?

A. Immune surveillance
B. Antibody-mediated immune response
C. Vaccination
D. Cell-mediated immune response
Answer» B. Antibody-mediated immune response
5.

In Counter immunoelectrophoresis

A. electrophoresis will drive the antibody and antigen toward each other
B. electrophoresis will drive the antibody and antigen parallel to each other
C. the antibody will migrate towards cathode
D. the antibody will migrate towards anode
Answer» B. electrophoresis will drive the antibody and antigen parallel to each other
6.

What type of B cell is like a tiny factory that produces antibodies identical to the B cell receptor that bind to the original antigen?

A. Memory cells
B. T cells
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells
Answer» E.
7.

Which is not the method for producing immobilized enzymes with multifunctional reagents?

A. Functional groups are introduced on the support to react co-valently with enzymes
B. Enzymes are adsorbed on the surface active support followed by intermolecular cross linking
C. None of the above
D. Enzymes are cross linked intermolecularly
Answer» D. Enzymes are cross linked intermolecularly
8.

Radial Immunodiffusion is similar to

A. gel diffusion
B. double-diffusion
C. all of these
D. Ouchterloney technique
Answer» C. all of these
9.

Which of the following is not the correct answer?

A. Immobilized enzyme may show selectively altered physical properties
B. Immobilized enzyme may show selectively altered chemical properties
C. None of the above
D. Immobilized enzyme may simulate the realistic natural environment where the enzyme come from the cell
Answer» D. Immobilized enzyme may simulate the realistic natural environment where the enzyme come from the cell
10.

A cell which defends against body cells in which viruses are reproducing is

A. Cytotoxic T cell
B. Exotoxin
C. Suppressor T cell
D. Endotoxin
Answer» B. Exotoxin
11.

The intraparticle mass transfer resistance can affect the rate of enzyme reaction, if enzymes are immobilized by

A. crosslinking using multifunctional reagents
B. copolymerization or microencapsulation
C. all of the above
D. adsorption
Answer» C. all of the above
12.

The immobilized technique involving chemical method is

A. non-covalent bond formation dependent
B. covalent bond formation dependent
C. ionic bond formation dependent
D. both ( and (
Answer» C. ionic bond formation dependent
13.

Damkohler number(NDa) is

A. the ratio of the minimum reaction rate to the maximum mass transfer rate
B. the ratio of the maximum reaction rate to the maximum mass transfer rate
C. the ratio of the minimum reaction rate to the minimum mass transfer rate
D. the ratio of the maximum reaction rate to the minimum mass transfer rate
Answer» C. the ratio of the minimum reaction rate to the minimum mass transfer rate
14.

Rocket Immunodiffusion is also known as

A. electroimmunodiffusion
B. gel diffusion
C. none of these
D. double-diffusion
Answer» B. gel diffusion
15.

Commonly employed water insoluble supports for the covalent attachment of enzyme include

A. polypeptides
B. acrylamide based polymers
C. all of these
D. dextran
Answer» D. dextran
16.

Lack of reaction to our own human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) is known as?

A. complement system
B. autoimmunity
C. tolerance
D. clonal selection
Answer» D. clonal selection
17.

If a person is vaccinated against a disease sometime in the past, which of the following is currently in your body?

A. A very high level of antibodies against the disease antigens
B. The disease organism itself and antigens for the disease organism
C. All of the above
D. Memory B lymphocytes for the antigen of this disease organism
Answer» D. Memory B lymphocytes for the antigen of this disease organism
18.

Antibodies bound to an invading microorganism activate the complement system via

A. metabolic pathway
B. classical pathway
C. Entner-Doudoroff pathway
D. Embden Meyerhof pathway
Answer» C. Entner-Doudoroff pathway
19.

What is approximatively the half life of 32-Phosphorus?

A. 28 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 42 days
Answer» C. 30 days
20.

The maturation of T cells and the production of particular T cell receptors occurs in the

A. thymus gland
B. thyroid gland
C. all of these
D. testes
Answer» B. thyroid gland
21.

The immobilization technique involving physical method is

A. non-covalent bond formation dependent
B. covalent bond formation dependent
C. ionic bond formation dependent
D. both ( and (
Answer» B. covalent bond formation dependent
22.

To measure the extent to which the reaction rate is lowered because of resistance to mass transfer, the effectiveness factor of an immobilized enzyme, η can be defined as

A. rate if not slowed by diffusion/ reaction rate
B. reaction rate/rate if not slowed by diffusion
C. rate if not slowed by diffusion/ actual reaction rate
D. actual reaction rate/ rate if not slowed by diffusion
Answer» E.
23.

Which of the following provide specific defense against viruses and bacteria?

A. B cells
B. T cells
C. inflammation
D. Complement
Answer» B. T cells
24.

What would happen if the anti-human Ig-conjugate is not washed free of the well before the substrate is added?

A. The ELISA would develop normally
B. The ELISA would not develop when the substrate was added
C. None of the above
D. All wells would show uniform over-development due to unbound and excess anti-human Ig enzyme conjugate
Answer» E.
25.

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs)

A. are derived from bone marrow stem cells
B. can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement
C. all of the above
D. are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria
Answer» D. are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria
26.

What is the result of an abnormal response of the immune system to part of a person\'s own body?

A. Cancer
B. Passive immunity
C. An autoimmune disease
D. An allergic response
Answer» D. An allergic response
27.

What type of B cell remains dormant in the body, but can respond rapidly if the same antigen appears again?

A. Memory cells
B. T cells
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells
Answer» B. T cells
28.

The competitive immunoassay can be used

A. to detect antibody associated with allergies (IgE)
B. to detect very small amounts of antigen
C. commonly to detect trace amounts of drugs.
D. both ( and (
Answer» E.
29.

Which is not an antigen-presenting cell (or APC)?

A. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (or PMN)
B. B cell
C. All of the above
D. Dendritic cell
Answer» B. B cell
30.

Following are the defenses of the colon except

A. fast flow rate
B. sIgA
C. mucus
D. dense resident microbiota
Answer» B. sIgA
31.

The immune response to a booster vaccine is called a(n)

A. innate response
B. cellular response
C. secondary response
D. primary response
Answer» D. primary response
32.

RAST test (radio allergosorbent test) is often used to detect

A. antigen associated with allergies (IgE)
B. antibodies associated with allergies (IgE)
C. None of the above
D. bacteriophages
Answer» C. None of the above
33.

The immobilized enzyme produced by micro encapsulation technique provides

A. smaller surface area
B. an extremely large surface area
C. relatively smaller surface area
D. high amount of solvent
Answer» C. relatively smaller surface area
34.

Agarose a porous matrix used in various molecular biology technique is made by repetitive units of

A. agarobiose
B. maltose
C. none of these
D. agar
Answer» C. none of these
35.

Immunological memory is due to

A. long lived B cells that secrete a specific antibody
B. short lived macrophage that can recognize specific pathogens
C. short lived helper T cells that signal macrophage to divide
D. long lived B cells that secrete a specific antigen
Answer» C. short lived helper T cells that signal macrophage to divide
36.

Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells. The protein molecule through which they present antigen in human is

A. interleukin
B. actin
C. CD8
D. HLA
Answer» D. HLA
37.

Which of the following is a positively charged matrix for ion exchange chromatography?

A. DEAE cellulose
B. CM cellulose
C. None of these
D. Phosphocellulose
Answer» B. CM cellulose
38.

Which medium is used for the production of Penicillin using immobilized cells

A. glucose medium
B. 1% peptone medium
C. LB broth
D. Yeast extract medium
Answer» B. 1% peptone medium
39.

An antigen preparation and an antibody preparation are tested by immunodiffusion. Three bands are found, indicating that

A. the antibody was impure
B. there was more than one antigen
C. there was one antibody and one antigen
D. the temperature was too high
Answer» C. there was one antibody and one antigen
40.

WHAT_IS_THE_FREQUENCY_OF_MARKER_BEACON_TRANSMISSION??$

A. 100 MHz
B. 75 MHz
C. 1 GHz
D. 1000 MHz
Answer» C. 1 GHz
41.

At what height is the auto flare initiated?$

A. 100 ft
B. 50 ft
C. 25 ft
D. 10 ft
Answer» C. 25 ft
42.

MLS_has_a_wide_selection_of_channels_to_avoid_interference_with_nearby_airports$

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
43.

What is the position accuracy that can be achieved by satellite guidance systems?

A. 10 m
B. 5 m
C. 0.5 m
D. 1 m
Answer» E.
44.

What is the velocity at the start of flare maneuver if the approach speed is 130 knots?

A. 2.91 m/s
B. 3 m/s
C. 3.56 m/s
D. 10 m/s
Answer» B. 3 m/s
45.

What type of controller is used in an auto flare control?

A. Proportional plus derivative
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus integral plus derivative
D. Proportional only
Answer» C. Proportional plus integral plus derivative
46.

What is DH?

A. Distance Height
B. Direct Height
C. Decision Height
D. Direction height
Answer» D. Direction height
47.

Under what category does zero visibility conditions come?

A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV
Answer» D. Category IV
48.

The use of autopilot for landing using ILS does not depend on _______

A. Visibility category
B. ILS ground installation standard
C. Runway lighting installation
D. Weight of the aircraft
Answer» E.
49.

What is the frequency used by the glide slope transmitter?

A. VHF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. LF
Answer» C. MF
50.

What is the frequency used by the localizer transmitter?

A. VHF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. LF
Answer» B. UHF