Explore topic-wise MCQs in Chemical Engineering.

This section includes 5314 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Chemical Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1801.

The survey in which details are covered roughly but not accurately is called __________

A. Reconnaissance
B. Rough survey
C. Map study
D. Detailed study
Answer» B. Rough survey
1802.

The maps in India related to topography are prepared by __________

A. Geological survey of India
B. Survey of India
C. NHAI
D. GOI
Answer» C. NHAI
1803.

The surveys of highway alignment are completed in how many stages?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer» E.
1804.

Calculate Q, if Speed is 250 rpm and D is 10 inches and wds factor is given as 500?

A. 11500 T/hr
B. 8500 T/hr
C. 9000 T/hr
D. 5000 T/hr
Answer» C. 9000 T/hr
1805.

Calculate capacity, if peripheral speed is 100 fps, width is 10 ft. and d is 5 ft?

A. 250,000
B. 100,000
C. 45,000
D. 50,000
Answer» B. 100,000
1806.

The limiting diameter, Dp is ____

A. d + r
B. 0.5R + r
C. 0.04R + d
D. R +r
Answer» D. R +r
1807.

The overall order for the reaction 2A+ B—> 2C with rate equation rate=k[A]^2[B] is?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer» E.
1808.

What is the speed of a chemical reaction?

A. Is independent of the contact surface
B. Is constant no matter what the temperature is
C. Varies inversely with the absolute temperature
D. Is extremely rapid between the ions in aqueous solution
Answer» E.
1809.

Which among the following catalyst increases the rate of the reaction?

A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Calcium sulphate
Answer» B. Calcium chloride
1810.

Identify the unit of “k” in moles/L for the rate law: k[A][B]pow2.

A. L/mol/s
B. L(pow2)/mol/s
C. L(pow2)* s(pow2)/mol(pow2)
D. s
Answer» E.
1811.

From the choices given below, identify the activation energy of a reaction whose rate constant increases by 100 when the temperature changes from 300K to 360K.

A. 53
B. 69
C. 35
D. 42
Answer» C. 35
1812.

Identify the true statement regarding catalyst.

A. Always decreases the rate of the reaction
B. Always increases the activation energy of the reaction
C. Actually participates in the reaction
D. Changes the equilibrium concentration of the product
Answer» D. Changes the equilibrium concentration of the product
1813.

The frequency of molecular collision increases if ____________

A. The concentration of product increases
B. The concentration of product decreases
C. The concentration of reactant increases
D. The concentration of reactant decreases
Answer» D. The concentration of reactant decreases
1814.

Temperature and pressure are the only factors which affect the reaction rate.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
1815.

The rate of the reaction is equal to the product of three factors listed below except ____________

A. Collision frequency
B. Energy factor
C. Orientation factor
D. pH factor
Answer» E.
1816.

The storage of renewable energy sources is expensive.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1817.

Renewable energy plants require ________than traditional generators.a) more fuelb) less maintenancec) higher operating costd) more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________

A. more fuelb) less maintenancec) higher operating costd) more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________a) location-specific
B. less maintenancec) higher operating costd) more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________a) location-specificb) universally available
C. higher operating costd) more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________a) location-specificb) universally availablec) highly efficient
D. more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________a) location-specificb) universally availablec) highly efficientd) pollutingView Answer
Answer» C. higher operating costd) more uranium 9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________a) location-specificb) universally availablec) highly efficient
1818.

Renewable energy-based power plants have ______

A. negligible fuel cost
B. low energy availability
C. negligible production capacity
D. fuel storage tanks
Answer» B. low energy availability
1819.

Which of the following statements is not true about Renewable Energy?

A. They do not cause pollution
B. Their transportation is difficult
C. They cause ecological imbalance
D. They have a low gestation period
Answer» D. They have a low gestation period
1820.

The cost of harnessing energy from Non-Conventional Energy sources is low.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
1821.

The availability of Renewable energy sources is _____

A. uncertain
B. constant
C. high
D. regular
Answer» B. constant
1822.

Based on the following options, choose the correct option. Statement I: Non-Conventional energy is available in nature free of cost. Statement II: Non-Conventional energy is exhaustible in nature.

A. Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
D. Statement II is true and Statement I is false
Answer» D. Statement II is true and Statement I is false
1823.

Non-Conventional Energy sources have a high gestation period.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
1824.

______ energy sources provide energy in dilute form.

A. Non-Renewable
B. Conventional
C. Nuclear
D. Renewable
Answer» E.
1825.

Which of these is not a part of tollgate review after Improve step?

A. Adequate documentation of how the solution was obtained
B. Documentation on alternative solutions that were considered
C. Complete results of pilot tests
D. Results of FMEA
Answer» E.
1826.

Which one of these is not a part of the 3 criteria for FMEA?

A. Likelihood of a process going wrong
B. Ability of detecting a failure
C. Cause for a failure
D. The severity of a failure
Answer» D. The severity of a failure
1827.

The 3 criterion for FMEA are scored on _____ scale.

A. 0 to 1
B. 0 to 100
C. 0 to 10
D. 0 to 5
Answer» D. 0 to 5
1828.

In FMEA, M stands for _____

A. Modes
B. Measurement
C. Manufacture
D. Material
Answer» B. Measurement
1829.

“The data collected in measure step may have a reference from the historical records.” Which of these options is correct bearing the above statement in mind?

A. Data from the historical records is satisfactory
B. Data from the historical records may not always be satisfactory
C. Data must always be collected only from historical records
D. Historical records are most reliable for data collection
Answer» C. Data must always be collected only from historical records
1830.

Which of these is not necessary in a tollgate report after measure step of DMAIC?

A. A list of identified KPIV’s and KPOV’s
B. Measurement system capability
C. SIPOC diagram
D. Assumptions made during the data collection
Answer» D. Assumptions made during the data collection
1831.

KPIV’s and KPOV’s are measured in _______

A. Define step
B. Measure step
C. In both Define and Measure step
D. Improve step
Answer» D. Improve step
1832.

Input is defined as _____

A. Material provided to a process
B. Changes made to controllable variables
C. Development of in the process
D. Desired product specification
Answer» B. Changes made to controllable variables
1833.

The shortest repeat-distance is aligned parallel to the direction of diffusion (fiber texture). This statement is known as____

A. Perkin rule
B. Thumb rule
C. Henrys rule
D. Marks direction principle
E. . This statement is known as____a) Perkin ruleb) Thumb rulec) Henrys ruled) Marks direction principle
Answer» C. Henrys rule
1834.

If a single crystalline layer of γ is growing between single crystalline substrate α and β, one might expect a completely_____

A. Straight α/γ and γ/β interfaces
B. Curved α/γ and γ/β interfaces
C. Straight γ/α and γ/β interfaces
D. Curved γ/α and γ/β interfaces
Answer» B. Curved α/γ and γ/β interfaces
1835.

The direction of the longest crystallographic axis is invariably oriented __________

A. Parallel to diffusion direction
B. Perpendicular to interface
C. Perpendicular to diffusion direction
D. Cannot be predicted
Answer» D. Cannot be predicted
1836.

Accurate microbe analysis near the interfaces are very difficult if the fluorescent effect affects the concentration measurements at distance as large as 40*10-6m from the interface.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1837.

The flux of atoms to the interface balance the________

A. Rate of accumulation due to the boundary migration
B. Mass of the system
C. Volume of the system
D. Stability of the grain boundary
Answer» B. Mass of the system
1838.

Under some circumstances the interface migration is said to be interface controlled.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1839.

Which among the following can give an extra information on layer growth mechanism and concentration limit of various phases?

A. Edges and free surface of diffusion couple
B. Positions of dislocation
C. Composition ratio
D. Shape of the interface
Answer» B. Positions of dislocation
1840.

If the diffusion couple technique is not used in a proper way which of the following error is most likely to occur?

A. The necessity to use the decremented couples
B. Small roles played by impurities
C. Steep concentration gradient may occur in the growing phases
D. No errors are likely to occur
Answer» D. No errors are likely to occur
1841.

Non equilibrium diffusion couples, a situation often encountered at ________

A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. When nucleation is perfect
D. Annealing time is too long
Answer» D. Annealing time is too long
1842.

Which of the following is an example of Diffusion in multi-phase binary system?

A. Alcohol in water
B. Aldehyde in water
C. Ketone in water
D. Galvanized iron and hot-dipped tin plate
Answer» E.
1843.

What is the magnitude of the resultant vector’s unit vector? (Resultant vector of the two vectors shown in the figure below)

A. 1N
B. 225N
C. 110N
D. 55NView Answer
Answer» B. 225N
1844.

What is the dot product of the components of the force vector shown in the figure, i.e. the dot product of the z-axis component and the y-axis component of the force?

A. 0
B. 200cos60°
C. 200sin45°
D. 200cos30°View Answer
Answer» B. 200cos60°
1845.

What is the angle made by the vector shown in the figure, with the z-axis?

A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 30°
D. 90°
Answer» D. 90°
1846.

What is the mixed triple product of three vectors?

A. S.(PxQ)
B. Sx(PxQ)
C. S.(P.Q)
D. Sx(P.Q)
Answer» B. Sx(PxQ)
1847.

What is Varigon’s Theorem? (M = Moment, F= Force vector, R= Radius vector)

A. M = R x F (F = F1 + F2 + F3 + … vectorially adding all the forces)
B. |A||B|sinØ
C. AxB)xS ≠ Px(QxS)
D. Px(Q+S) = (PxQ) + (PxS)
Answer» B. |A||B|sinØ
1848.

The tendency of a force to rotate the body is called the moment of the force.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1849.

What is the dot product of two vectors which are having a magnitude equal to unity and are making an angle of 45°?

A. 0.707
B. -0.707
C. 1.414
D. -1.414
Answer» B. -0.707
1850.

Straight edge is generally used in which gauge for testing taper?

A. Plain plug gauge
B. Plain ring gauge
C. Tanged plug gauge
D. Tanged ring gauge
Answer» C. Tanged plug gauge