Explore topic-wise MCQs in Chemical Engineering.

This section includes 5314 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Chemical Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

501.

Which of the following analysis helps out to find the effect of variable change?

A. Inferential
B. Exploratory
C. Causal
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
502.

Which of the following uses relatively small amount of data to estimate about bigger population?

A. Inferential
B. Exploratory
C. Causal
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» B. Exploratory
503.

Which of the following type of data science question is missing in the figure?

A. Correlative
B. Exploratory
C. Relative
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. Relative
504.

Which of the following PCR is used for the conversion of RNA to DNA?

A. Q-PCR
B. RT-PCR
C. Nested PCR
D. Multiplex PCR
Answer» C. Nested PCR
505.

Cell lines are the type of cell culture.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
506.

ELISA is used for the detection of viral diseases.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
507.

Taq polymerase is isolated from ____________

A. Escherichia coli
B. Thermus aquaticus
C. Pyrococcus furiosus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer» C. Pyrococcus furiosus
508.

PCR was devised by ____________

A. Kary Mullis
B. Fredrick Sanger
C. Paul Berg
D. James Watson
Answer» B. Fredrick Sanger
509.

Which of the following is not the step of viral genome amplification?

A. Denaturation
B. Annealing
C. Expansion
D. Renaturation
Answer» D. Renaturation
510.

The hybridoma technology is used for the production of ___________

A. MAbs
B. Growth medium
C. Antigens
D. Insulin
Answer» B. Growth medium
511.

Which of the following is important for mitosis to occur?

A. Plasma
B. Alcohol
C. Serum
D. Water
Answer» D. Water
512.

Which of the following effect causes changes in the host organism?

A. Cytopathic effect
B. Kappa effect
C. Peltzman effect
D. Hypersonic effect
Answer» B. Kappa effect
513.

Which of the following is the first cell line derived from a human?

A. HEK 293
B. HeLa
C. Sf9
D. Chinese hamster ovary cells
Answer» C. Sf9
514.

Which of the following is not a category of the method of virus detection?

A. Multiplication
B. Hematology
C. Serology
D. Nucleic acid detection
Answer» C. Serology
515.

The activation energy of a reaction is 155326 J/ mol. The rate constant of the reaction at and 300K as a function of rate constant at 400K, obtained by the Collision theory is ____

A. k1 = 1.5 × 10-7k2
B. k1 = 1.2 × 10-6 k2
C. k1 = 1.5 × 10-6 k2
D. k1 = 1.2 × 10-7 k2
Answer» B. k1 = 1.2 × 10-6 k2
516.

If the rate constant of a reaction at 600K is 100 times the rate constant at 500K, then the value of the activation energy obtained by Transition state theory is ____

A. 120987.12
B. 167435.15
C. 110319.28
D. 156435.54
Answer» D. 156435.54
517.

If the rate constant of a reaction at 275K is 1 min-1 and the rate constant at 300K is 2 min-1, what is the activation energy (in J/ mol) as obtained by Arrhenius law?

A. 24655
B. 19019.14
C. 366543.2
D. 18989.32
Answer» C. 366543.2
518.

The activation energy for a reaction is 122137.5 J/ mol. If the rate constant at 330K is 0.5 min-1, then the value of rate constant (in min-1) at 360K by Arrhenius law is ____

A. 20.42
B. 18.65
C. 30.12
D. 12.32
Answer» B. 18.65
519.

Which of the following pairing is incorrect? (Where A is the frequency factor)

A. Arrhenius equation; k = A\(e^{\frac{-Ea}{RT}} \)
B. Transition state theory; k = AT\(e^{\frac{-Ea}{RT}} \)
C. Collision theory; k = AT0.5\(e^{\frac{-Ea}{RT}} \)
D. Arrhenius equation; k = AT2\(e^{\frac{-Ea}{RT}} \)
Answer» E.
520.

The folds caused due to the drag effect are ___________

A. Monocline
B. Homocline
C. Basins
D. Drag folds
Answer» E.
521.

The anticlines signifying larger bending are called ___________

A. Geranticlines
B. Geosynclines
C. Geanticlines
D. Geoantinclines
Answer» D. Geoantinclines
522.

The fold which is associated with the formation of mountains is ___________

A. Geanticline
B. Geosyncline
C. Homocline
D. Basin
Answer» C. Homocline
523.

Which is the class of fold with the degree of curvature greater on the outer arc compared to the inner arc?

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Answer» D. Class 4
524.

Gentle folds have fold angle between ___________

A. 10° to 90°
B. 90° to 170°
C. 170° to 180°
D. They don’t belong to this type
Answer» D. They don’t belong to this type
525.

A fold can have differences in thickness due to erosional and depositional processes.

A. False
B. True
Answer» C.
526.

Which is the type of fold with a similar degree of folding for indefinite depths?

A. Concentric fold
B. Similar fold
C. Conjugate fold
D. Uniform fold
Answer» C. Conjugate fold
527.

Identify the class to which the fold below belongs to ___________

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
Answer» C. Class 3
528.

There are three types of folds classified on the basis of relative curvature of the outer and the inner arcs of a fold.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
529.

The type of fold which is actually a group of folds is ____________

A. Symmetrical folds
B. Asymmetrical folds
C. Isoclinal folds
D. Recumbent folds
Answer» D. Recumbent folds
530.

Pick the wrong statement about recumbent fold.

A. It has the arch, which is zone of curvature
B. It has the shell, which is the inner zone, made up of mostly igneous rocks
C. It has the shell, which is the outer zone, made up of mostly sedimentary rocks
D. It has the core, which is the innermost zone, maybe made up of igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks
Answer» C. It has the shell, which is the outer zone, made up of mostly sedimentary rocks
531.

Brinell hardness numbers of materials are identical to ________ hardness numbers.

A. Set method
B. Extension under load
C. Shore scleroscope
D. Vickers
Answer» E.
532.

In case of shore scleroscope hardness, the number considered is the average of __________ determinations.

A. 5
B. 26
C. 1
D. 333
Answer» B. 26
533.

Which if the following is suggested in the shore scleroscope test to obtain the exact value?

A. Instrument should be in sunlight
B. Instrument should be spray painted
C. Instrument should be fixed rigidly
D. Instrument should be in sleeping position
Answer» D. Instrument should be in sleeping position
534.

The shore scleroscope hardness test is carried out by ________ a tiny diamond-pointed hammer from a particular altitude and comparing the altitude of rebound to a standard test material.

A. inserting
B. cutting
C. smoothly pressing
D. dropping
Answer» E.
535.

The loading used for a homogenous specimen in the bucket’s hardness test is _______

A. 30kg
B. 500kg
C. 5kg
D. 13kg
Answer» B. 500kg
536.

The penetrator in the Vickers hardness test is a pyramid that is squarely based and has an included angle of _______

A. 206°
B. 15°
C. 136°
D. 23°
Answer» D. 23°
537.

The Vickers hardness test consists of a _________ penetrator.

A. diamond
B. steel ball
C. carbon
D. iron
Answer» B. steel ball
538.

Similar hardness testing machines give the exact same results.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
539.

What should be done to avoid deflection caused by depression?

A. Plating
B. Unique direction
C. Smooth surface
D. Required edge distance
Answer» E.
540.

Which of the following is not a process or property that influences the hardness of a material?

A. Buffing
B. Storing
C. Porous areas
D. Decarburizing
Answer» C. Porous areas
541.

Design a suitable section for the tie member of a truss to support a maximum design tensile force of 500kn. The permissible compressive stress in concrete at transfer is 15n/mm2.

A. 41500
B. 4000
C. 22000
D. 1500
Answer» B. 4000
542.

The design essentially considered for axial tension is to determine the ____________

A. Deflection
B. Eccentricity
C. Cross section
D. Loads
Answer» D. Loads
543.

Due to presence of precompression, prestressed concrete is ideally suited for the design of members subjected to ____________

A. Axial tension
B. Prestressed tension
C. Principle stress
D. Bonded stress
Answer» B. Prestressed tension
544.

A post tensioned beam of unsymmetrical I section is required to support a design ultimate moment of 1200 knm and determine the overall depth and thickness of the compression flange required if fck is 35n/mm2 and fp is 1500n/mm2?

A. 1000mm2
B. 1015mm2
C. 1030mm2
D. 1003mm2
Answer» E.
545.

A pretensioned prestressed concrete beam of rectangular section is required to support a design ultimate moment of 100knm. Design the section if fck is 50n/mm2 and fp 1600n/mm2, xu/d is 0.5?

A. 300
B. 500
C. 600
D. 200
Answer» B. 500
546.

It is often preferable to use a larger section, because it means a saving on ____________

A. Deflection
B. Cost
C. Stress
D. Strain
Answer» B. Cost
547.

The maximum design value of the moment of resistance of rectangular flanged section varies from ____________

A. 0.08fckbd2 to 0.2fckbd2
B. 0.11fcckd2 to 0.5fckbd2
C. 0.15fcckd2 to 0.8fckbd2
D. 0.21fcckd2 to 0.9fckbd2
Answer» B. 0.11fcckd2 to 0.5fckbd2
548.

Which of failure is considered in the design of prestressed concrete members for the limit states of collapse?

A. Total failure
B. Shear failure
C. Ultimate failure
D. Collapse failure
Answer» D. Collapse failure
549.

The permanent hardness is also known as __________

A. Pseudo hardness
B. Non carbonate hardness
C. Carbonate hardness
D. Brinell hardness
Answer» C. Carbonate hardness
550.

The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of __________

A. Sulfates, Chlorides
B. Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates
C. Carbonates and bicarbonates
D. Sulfates and carbonates
Answer» D. Sulfates and carbonates