Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The use of triggered sweep when using an oscilloscope provides more accuracy in which area?

A. frequency
B. amplitude
C. graticule activity
D. timing
Answer» E.
2.

The PUT (programmable unijunction transistor) is actually a type of:

A. UJT thyristor
B. FET device
C. TRIAC
D. SCR
Answer» B. FET device
3.

A transducer's function is to:

A. transmit electrical energy
B. convert energy
C. produce mechanical energy
D. prevent current flow
Answer» C. produce mechanical energy
4.

The smallest amount of current that the cathode-anode can have, and still sustain conduction of an SCR is called the:

A. maximum forward current
B. maximum forward gate current
C. holding current
D. reverse gate leakage current
Answer» E.
5.

A UJT has:

A. two base leads
B. one emitter lead
C. two emitter leads and one base lead
D. one emitter lead and two base leads
Answer» E.
6.

Which test equipment best allows a comparison between input and output signals?

A. an oscilloscope
B. a logic probe
C. a spectrum analyzer
D. a multitrace oscilloscope
Answer» E.
7.

What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?

A. There is no difference.
B. Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand English.
C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.
D. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are a high-level language.
Answer» C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.
8.

A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

A. CPU
B. compiler
C. microcomputer
D. ALU
Answer» D. ALU
9.

What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time and shift all the stored bits out one bit at a time?

A. PIPO
B. SISO
C. SIPO
D. PISO
Answer» C. SIPO
10.

Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous (ripple) counters because the:

A. input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
B. input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage
C. input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stages
D. input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage
Answer» E.
11.

One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous counters is that:

A. low-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays
B. high-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays
C. Asynchronous counters do not have major drawbacks and are suitable for use in high- and low-frequency counting applications.
D. Asynchronous counters do not have propagation delays, which limits their use in high-frequency applications.
Answer» C. Asynchronous counters do not have major drawbacks and are suitable for use in high- and low-frequency counting applications.
12.

The determination of a digital signal's frequency and waveshape is best accomplished with which test equipment?

A. an oscilloscope
B. a multimeter
C. a spectrum analyzer
D. a frequency generator
Answer» B. a multimeter
13.

A logic probe is placed on the output of a gate and the display indicator is dim. A logic pulser is used on each of the input terminals, but the output indication does not change. What is wrong?

A. The dim indication on the logic probe indicates that the supply voltage is probably low.
B. The output of the gate appears to be open.
C. The LOW indication is the result of a bad ground connection on the logic probe.
D. The gate is a tri-state device.
Answer» C. The LOW indication is the result of a bad ground connection on the logic probe.
14.

A +5 V PCB power source that has been "pulled down" to a +3.4 V level may be due to:

A. a circuit open
B. a faulty regulator
C. the half-split method
D. a circuit short
Answer» E.
15.

Measurement of pulse width should be taken at a 50% mean of the:

A. overshoot and undershoot
B. rise and fall
C. damping and ringing
D. leading and trailing amplitude
Answer» C. damping and ringing
16.

What does a hall effect sensor sense?

A. temperature
B. moisture
C. magnetic fields
D. pressure
Answer» D. pressure
17.

What causes the piezoelectric effect?

A. heat or dissimilar metals
B. pressure on a crystal
C. water running on iron
D. a magnetic field
Answer» C. water running on iron
18.

Which is the DIAC?

A. <img src="/_files/images/basic-electronics/complete/mca14_10012a1.gif" alt="mca14_10012a1.gif">
B. <img src="/_files/images/basic-electronics/complete/mca14_10012b1.gif" alt="mca14_10012b1.gif">
C. <img src="/_files/images/basic-electronics/complete/mca14_10012c1.gif" alt="mca14_10012c1.gif">
D. <img src="/_files/images/basic-electronics/complete/mca14_10012d1.gif" alt="mca14_10012d1.gif">
Answer» B. <img src="/_files/images/basic-electronics/complete/mca14_10012b1.gif" alt="mca14_10012b1.gif">
19.

Intrinsic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many electrons?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer» D. 6
20.

Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the:

A. junction
B. depletion region
C. barrier voltage
D. forward voltage
Answer» C. barrier voltage
21.

What is the most significant development in electronics since World War II?

A. the development of color TV
B. the development of the diode
C. the development of the transistor
D. the development of the TRIAC
Answer» D. the development of the TRIAC
22.

What causes the depletion region?

A. doping
B. diffusion
C. barrier potential
D. ions
Answer» C. barrier potential
23.

What is an energy gap?

A. the space between two orbital shells
B. the energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a 1 V electric field
C. the energy band in which electrons can move freely
D. an energy level at which an electron can exist
Answer» B. the energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a 1 V electric field
24.

With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be:

A. in opposite directions
B. to the external load
C. from the reverse biased diode
D. in the same direction
Answer» E.
25.

A characteristic curve is the result of a current versus voltage plot of diode activity, which begins at the:

A. 3rd quadrant
B. current plot
C. graph origin
D. voltage plot
Answer» D. voltage plot
26.

When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it

A. is directly proportional to the current
B. is inversely proportional to the current
C. is directly proportional to the source voltage
D. remains approximately the same
Answer» E.
27.

Why is heat produced in a diode?

A. due to current passing through the diode
B. due to voltage across the diode
C. due to the power rating of the diode
D. due to the PN junction of the diode
Answer» B. due to voltage across the diode
28.

The diode schematic arrow points to the:

A. trivalent-doped material
B. positive axial lead
C. anode lead
D. cathode lead
Answer» E.
29.

When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:

A. open
B. satisfactory
C. faulty
D. not the problem
Answer» D. not the problem
30.

Electrons in the outermost orbit or shell of an atom are called

A. free electrons
B. negative ions
C. valence electrons
D. conduction band electrons
Answer» D. conduction band electrons
31.

Shunting the ac component away from the load is the task of a:

A. transformer
B. filter
C. regulator
D. rectifier
Answer» C. regulator
32.

What is the current through the zener diode?

A. 0 mA
B. 7 mA
C. 8.3 mA
D. 13 mA
Answer» C. 8.3 mA
33.

A diode for which you can change the reverse bias, and thus vary the capacitance is called a

A. varactor diode
B. tunnel diode
C. zener diode
D. switching diode
Answer» B. tunnel diode
34.

A filtered full-wave rectifier voltage has a smaller ripple than does a half-wave rectifier voltage for the same load resistance and capacitor values because:

A. there is a shorter time between peaks
B. there is a longer time between peaks
C. the larger the ripple, the better the filtering action
D. none of the above
Answer» B. there is a longer time between peaks
35.

Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate

A. high resistance when forward or reverse biased
B. low resistance when forward or reverse biased
C. high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased
D. high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse biased
Answer» D. high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse biased
36.

The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode in a bridge rectifier equals approximately:

A. half the peak secondary voltage
B. twice the peak secondary voltage
C. the peak value of the secondary voltage
D. four times the peak value of the secondary voltage
Answer» D. four times the peak value of the secondary voltage
37.

If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal feed to it, then it is operating as what?

A. Common-mode
B. Single-ended
C. Double-ended
D. Noninverting mode
Answer» C. Double-ended
38.

If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7 V applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?

A. 7.82 V
B. saturation
C. cutoff
D. 9.52 V
Answer» E.
39.

In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input ( ) is negative relative to the noninverting input (+), the output will:

A. swing negative
B. close the loop
C. be balanced
D. swing positive
Answer» E.
40.

What is the difference between common-mode and differential-mode input signals?

A. phase relationship
B. voltage
C. current
D. apparent power
Answer» B. voltage
41.

The common-mode voltage gain is

A. smaller than differential voltage gain
B. equal to voltage gain
C. greater than differential voltage gain
D. None of the above
Answer» B. equal to voltage gain
42.

How many logic states does an S-R flip-flop have?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» D. 5
43.

An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is from which type of amplifier?

A. differentiator
B. difference
C. summing
D. analog subtractor
Answer» D. analog subtractor
44.

In a PLL, to obtain lock, the signal frequency must:

A. come within the lock range
B. be less than the capture frequency
C. come within the capture range
D. be greater than the capture frequency
Answer» D. be greater than the capture frequency
45.

An ideal amplifier should have:

A. high input current
B. zero offset
C. high output impedance
D. moderate gain
Answer» C. high output impedance
46.

The Schmitt trigger is a two-state device that is used for:

A. pulse shaping
B. peak detection
C. input noise rejection
D. filtering
Answer» B. peak detection
47.

When a capacitor is used in place of a resistor in an op-amp network, its placement determines:

A. open- or closed-loop gain
B. integration or differentiation
C. saturation or cutoff
D. addition or subtraction
Answer» C. saturation or cutoff
48.

All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT

A. inverting mode
B. common-mode
C. double-ended
D. single-ended
Answer» B. common-mode
49.

What is the output voltage?

A. 15 V
B. 5 V
C. 5 V
D. 15 V
Answer» D. 15 V
50.

How many leads does the TO-5 metal can package of an operational amplifier have?

A. 8, 10, or 12
B. 6, 8, or 10
C. 8 or 14
D. 8 or 16
Answer» B. 6, 8, or 10