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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2539 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 451. |
Vasodilators are used to treat: |
| A. | Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction |
| B. | Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction |
| C. | Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 452. |
Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: |
| A. | It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins |
| B. | It has a shorter plasma half life |
| C. | It is less potent |
| D. | It has a longer latency of action |
| Answer» C. It is less potent | |
| 453. |
The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is: |
| A. | Increase in total coronary blood flow |
| B. | Redistribution of coronary blood flow |
| C. | Reduction of cardiac preload |
| D. | Reduction of cardiac afterload |
| Answer» D. Reduction of cardiac afterload | |
| 454. |
The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: |
| A. | Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient |
| B. | Prophylaxis of endemic goiter |
| C. | As antiseptic |
| D. | As expectorant |
| Answer» D. As expectorant | |
| 455. |
Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: |
| A. | Increasing vagal tone |
| B. | Decreasing sympathetic overactivity |
| C. | Direct depression of sinoatrial node |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 456. |
The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: |
| A. | They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart |
| B. | They have no effect on A-V conduction |
| C. | They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 457. |
2-(2,3-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and butyryl chloride are precursors for synthesis of |
| A. | Hydrochlorthiazide |
| B. | Acetazolamide |
| C. | Furosemide |
| D. | Ethacrinic acid |
| Answer» E. | |
| 458. |
The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: |
| A. | Na+ channel blockade |
| B. | K+ channel opening |
| C. | Depression of impulse conduction |
| D. | Prolongation of effective refractory period |
| Answer» B. K+ channel opening | |
| 459. |
Action of Insulin does not include the following: |
| A. | Facilitation of glucose transport into cells |
| B. | Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver |
| C. | Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver |
| D. | Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue |
| Answer» D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue | |
| 460. |
6-Chloro-3,4-dihydro-2H-1,2,4-benzothiadiazine-7-sulfonamide 1,1-dioxide is IUPAC name of |
| A. | Hydrochlorthiazide |
| B. | Acetazolamide |
| C. | Furosemide |
| D. | Ethacrinic acid |
| Answer» B. Acetazolamide | |
| 461. |
Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: |
| A. | Inhibit thyroxine synthesis |
| B. | Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary |
| C. | Block the action of TSH on thyroid |
| D. | Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues |
| Answer» B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary | |
| 462. |
The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: |
| A. | Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia |
| B. | Both cause bradycardia |
| C. | Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia |
| D. | Both cause tachycardia |
| Answer» D. Both cause tachycardia | |
| 463. |
The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is: |
| A. | Decrease in glomerular filtration rate |
| B. | Decreased renal blood flow |
| C. | Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle |
| D. | Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells |
| Answer» E. | |
| 464. |
Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: |
| A. | Gynaecomastia |
| B. | Thrombocytopenia |
| C. | Haemolytic anaemia |
| D. | Lupus erythematosus |
| Answer» E. | |
| 465. |
is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: |
| A. | By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive |
| B. | Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension |
| C. | Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms |
| D. | It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure |
| Answer» D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure | |
| 466. |
Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except: |
| A. | Oral |
| B. | Sublingual |
| C. | Intramuscular |
| D. | Intravenous |
| Answer» D. Intravenous | |
| 467. |
Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: |
| A. | They act in the proximal convoluted tubule |
| B. | They are uricosuric |
| C. | They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
| D. | They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis |
| Answer» E. | |
| 468. |
The structure of steroids is based on the ____________________skeleton. |
| A. | 1,2-cyclopentanophenanthrene |
| B. | 1,2-cyclohexanophenanthrene |
| C. | 1,3-cyclopentanophenanthrene |
| D. | 1,3-cyclohexanophenanthrene |
| Answer» B. 1,2-cyclohexanophenanthrene | |
| 469. |
In cardiac glycoside, position of β- unsaturated lactone ring is |
| A. | C – 3 |
| B. | C – 14 |
| C. | C – 17 |
| D. | C – 23 |
| Answer» D. C – 23 | |
| 470. |
The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by: |
| A. | Thiazides |
| B. | Metolazone |
| C. | Xipamide |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 471. |
Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: |
| A. | Clotting factors in liver |
| B. | Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium |
| C. | Cyclic AMP in platelets |
| D. | Thromboxane A2 in platelets |
| Answer» E. | |
| 472. |
The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: |
| A. | Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion |
| B. | Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin |
| C. | Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI |
| D. | Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa |
| Answer» C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI | |
| 473. |
The following is true of clopidogrel except: |
| A. | It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist |
| B. | It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation |
| C. | It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks |
| D. | It is a prodrug |
| Answer» B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation | |
| 474. |
Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: |
| A. | As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops |
| B. | As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy |
| C. | In patients not responding to carbimazole |
| D. | To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine |
| Answer» B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy | |
| 475. |
Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather thancirculating plasminogen: |
| A. | Urokinase |
| B. | Streptokinase |
| C. | Alteplase |
| D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ | |
| 476. |
Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: |
| A. | Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption |
| B. | Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| C. | Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ |
| D. | Potentiating the action of aldosterone |
| Answer» D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone | |
| 477. |
The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: |
| A. | Proximal tubule |
| B. | Ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| C. | Cortical diluting segment |
| D. | Collecting ducts |
| Answer» D. Collecting ducts | |
| 478. |
Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with: |
| A. | Amiodarone |
| B. | Mexiletine |
| C. | Sotalol |
| D. | Procainamide |
| Answer» B. Mexiletine | |
| 479. |
Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: |
| A. | Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate |
| B. | Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate |
| C. | Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate |
| D. | Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate |
| Answer» C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate | |
| 480. |
Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide. |
| A. | Glipizide |
| B. | Metformin |
| C. | Pioglitazone |
| D. | Tolbutamide |
| Answer» C. Pioglitazone | |
| 481. |
Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: |
| A. | Diazoxide |
| B. | Sodium nitroprusside |
| C. | Minoxidil |
| D. | Nicorandil |
| Answer» E. | |
| 482. |
The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine totriiodothyronine: |
| A. | Propyl thiouracil |
| B. | Methimazole |
| C. | Carbimazole |
| D. | Radioactive iodine |
| Answer» B. Methimazole | |
| 483. |
The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is: |
| A. | Pulse rate |
| B. | Body weight |
| C. | Serum thyroxine level |
| D. | Serum TSH level |
| Answer» E. | |
| 484. |
Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and canprecipitate angina: |
| A. | Clonidine |
| B. | Hydralazine |
| C. | Captopril |
| D. | Prazosin |
| Answer» C. Captopril | |
| 485. |
Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α |
| A. | Lovastatin |
| B. | Atorvastatin |
| C. | Bezafibrate |
| D. | Nicotinic acid |
| Answer» D. Nicotinic acid | |
| 486. |
The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: |
| A. | About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action |
| B. | Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs |
| C. | They decrease glomerular filtration |
| D. | They have relatively flat dose response curve |
| Answer» B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs | |
| 487. |
Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: |
| A. | Direct vasoconstriction |
| B. | Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla |
| C. | Increasing central sympathetic tone |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» E. | |
| 488. |
The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: |
| A. | Dipyridamole |
| B. | Minoxidil |
| C. | Diazoxide |
| D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» E. | |
| 489. |
Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: |
| A. | Nifedipine |
| B. | Felodipine |
| C. | Verapamil |
| D. | Isosorbide mononitrate |
| Answer» D. Isosorbide mononitrate | |
| 490. |
acts by inhibiting: |
| A. | Iodide trapping |
| B. | Oxidation of iodide |
| C. | Proteolysis of thyroglobulin |
| D. | Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein |
| Answer» C. Proteolysis of thyroglobulin | |
| 491. |
Losartan is |
| A. | Renin release blocker |
| B. | ACE inhibitor |
| C. | Angiotension I blocker |
| D. | Angiotension II blocker |
| Answer» D. Angiotension II blocker | |
| 492. |
_____________ is carboxylic acid moiety containing. |
| A. | Captopril |
| B. | Enalapril |
| C. | Fosinopril |
| D. | Bepridil |
| Answer» C. Fosinopril | |
| 493. |
The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: |
| A. | Isosorbide dinitrate |
| B. | Pentaerythritol tetranitrate |
| C. | Diltiazem |
| D. | Dipyridamole |
| Answer» B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate | |
| 494. |
Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promotingsalt and water excretion because: |
| A. | Maximum percentage of salt and water is reabsorbed in this segment |
| B. | Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited |
| C. | This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water |
| D. | This segment is responsible for creating corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
| Answer» C. This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water | |
| 495. |
The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: |
| A. | Amlodipine |
| B. | Nifedipine |
| C. | Diltiazem |
| D. | Verapamil |
| Answer» C. Diltiazem | |
| 496. |
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: |
| A. | High renin hypertensives |
| B. | Diabetics |
| C. | Congestive heart failure patients |
| D. | Pregnant women |
| Answer» E. | |
| 497. |
The following is not true about : |
| A. | It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state |
| B. | It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels |
| C. | It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels |
| D. | It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels |
| Answer» C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels | |
| 498. |
Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: |
| A. | They selectively inhibit factor Xa |
| B. | They do not significantly prolong clotting time |
| C. | They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action |
| D. | All of the above are correct |
| Answer» E. | |
| 499. |
Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver: |
| A. | Glyceryl trinitrate |
| B. | Isosorbide dinitrate |
| C. | Isosorbide mononitrate |
| D. | Erythrityl tetranitrate |
| Answer» D. Erythrityl tetranitrate | |
| 500. |
Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparinexcept: |
| A. | Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis |
| B. | Less frequent dosing |
| C. | Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability |
| D. | Laboratory monitoring of response not required |
| Answer» B. Less frequent dosing | |