Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The capacity of a memory unit is ____________

A. The number of binary input stored
B. The number of words stored
C. The number of bytes stored
D. All of the Mentioned
Answer» D. All of the Mentioned
2.

The group of each 8-bit is called ____________

A. Nibble
B. Flag
C. Byte
D. Word
Answer» D. Word
3.

Each word stored in a memory location is represented by ____________

A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Storage class
D. Address
Answer» E.
4.

Each word consist of a sequence of ____________

A. Letters
B. Binary numbers
C. Hexadecimal numbers
D. Gray codes
Answer» C. Hexadecimal numbers
5.

The data stored in a group of bits is called ____________

A. Nibble
B. Word
C. Byte
D. Address
Answer» C. Byte
6.

To transfer the information from input to output and vice versa, the cells used are ____________

A. Storage cells
B. Data cells
C. Unit cells
D. Both data and unit cells
Answer» B. Data cells
7.

A memory is a collection of ____________

A. Unit cells
B. Storage cells
C. Data cells
D. Binary cells
Answer» C. Data cells
8.

When two or more devices try to write data in a bus simultaneously, is known as ______________

A. Bus collisions
B. Address multiplexing
C. Address decoding
D. Bus contention
Answer» E.
9.

Which one of the following “selected dairy products” has the greatest production in the U.S.?

A. Non-fat dry milk
B. Butter
C. Yogurt
D. Evaporated milk
Answer» D. Evaporated milk
10.

The largest production of Italian cheese went to the production of _____________ cheese.

A. Cheddar
B. Brie
C. Mozzarella
D. Provolone
Answer» D. Provolone
11.

The top five state in the production of cheese accounted for almost _______% of all U.S. cheese production.

A. 29
B. 42
C. 51
D. 69
Answer» E.
12.

Which of the following states listed is NOT in the top five for production of cheese?

A. Idaho
B. Wisconsin
C. Minnesota
D. New York
Answer» E.
13.

California is the leading state in the production of ice cream, which state was second?

A. Texas
B. Indiana
C. Minnesota
D. Colorado
Answer» C. Minnesota
14.

The national average milk production per cow in the U.S. is approximately _________ pounds per year.

A. 18,400
B. 19,500
C. 20,500
D. 22,600
Answer» D. 22,600
15.

Who invented the automobile water radiator?

A. Wilhelm Maybach
B. Karl Benz
C. Elon Musk
D. Alfred Noble
Answer» C. Elon Musk
16.

At what temperature does the thermostats fully open?

A. 36°C
B. 98°C
C. 82°C
D. 42°C
Answer» D. 42°C
17.

What is the temperature of water in a closed radiator under high pressure?

A. 319°F
B. 123°F
C. 264°F
D. 243°F
Answer» E.
18.

What is the melting point of Platinum?

A. 1750°C
B. 2050°C
C. 850°C
D. 750°C
Answer» B. 2050°C
19.

What is the temperature of burning gases in the engine?

A. 3000-4000°C
B. 1500-2000°C
C. 11000-12000°C
D. 9000-10000°C
Answer» C. 11000-12000°C
20.

A diesel tractor develops 60 KW with a coolant temperature difference 5.5°C. What will be the quantity of water to be circulated through the radiator?

A. 3.72 l/s
B. 5.56 l/s
C. 9.88 l/s
D. 11.10 l/s
Answer» C. 9.88 l/s
21.

A body cools from 70°C to 40°C in 5 minutes at surrounding temperature of 10°C. How long will it take for the body to cool from 49°C to 25°C?

A. 4.3 minutes
B. 6.5 minutes
C. 3.3 minutes
D. 1.8 minutes
Answer» C. 3.3 minutes
22.

What would be the quantity of water to be circulated through the radiator, if diesel tractor developed 40 KW with a coolant temperature difference of 5.5°C?

A. 4.26 lps
B. 4.19 lps
C. 2.86 lps
D. 3.72 lps
Answer» E.
23.

What output do the engines reject running at a speed of 2000 rpm and at full load condition using gasoline?

A. 0.75 KW
B. 0.89 KW
C. 0.23 KW
D. 0.44 KW
Answer» B. 0.89 KW
24.

Which law states that the rate of heat radiated by a body is directly proportional to the excess of temperature, provided that the excess temperature is less as compared to the surrounding temperature?

A. Pascal’s law
B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Einstein’s equation
D. Henry’s law
Answer» C. Einstein’s equation
25.

Springs(closely coiled) are examples of _____________

A. stiffness
B. hardness
C. toughness
D. are examples of _____________a) stiffnessb) hardnessc) toughnessd) creep
Answer» B. hardness
26.

By keeping the phreatic line within the downstream toe, the ___________ can be avoided.

A. Piping
B. Gullying
C. Sloughing
D. Over topping
Answer» D. Over topping
27.

Expand MWL?

A. Minimum water level
B. Maximum water level
C. Meagre water level
D. Most wind level
Answer» C. Meagre water level
28.

The hydrostatic pressures on phreatic line are equal to____

A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Constant
Answer» B. Maximum
29.

____________ represents the top stream line.

A. Phreatic line
B. Hydraulic gradient line
C. Seepage gradient
D. Hydraulic seepage line
Answer» B. Hydraulic gradient line
30.

Line of seepage is also known as __________

A. Hydraulic gradient
B. Phreatic line
C. Seepage gradient
D. Hydraulic seepage line
Answer» C. Seepage gradient
31.

___________ dams are built with key trenches.

A. Heterogeneous earth dam
B. Homogeneous earth dam
C. Earth Dam with Core wall
D. Rolled fill dam
Answer» D. Rolled fill dam
32.

Calculate the eccentricity of a trapezoidal dam with a distance between the centre of gravity and point where the resultant cuts the base is 5m. The bottom width of the dam is 3m.

A. 2.5m
B. 3.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 5m
Answer» C. 4.5m
33.

The SD16 has a second-order modulator with a _________

A. sinc filter
B. sinc2 filter
C. sinc3 fiter
D. rect filter
Answer» D. rect filter
34.

Decimated means _________

A. multipled by 10
B. multiplied by 100
C. divided by 10
D. divided by 100
Answer» B. multiplied by 100
35.

The filtered digital signal is then decimated to

A. reduce the rate of samples from fm to fs
B. reduce the rate of samples from fs to fm
C. increase the rate of samples from fm to fs
D. increase the rate of samples from fs to fm
Answer» E.
36.

The second part of the ADC’s output is in the form of _________

A. the fast stream of single bits
B. the fast stream of multiple bits
C. the slow stream of single bits
D. the slow stream of multiple bits
Answer» B. the fast stream of multiple bits
37.

The basic idea behind the sigma delta converter is that

A. to carry out the conversion
B. to carry out communication
C. to reduce the circuit to its simplest way possible and then carry out the conversion
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
38.

Which among the following is not a caused due to presence of heavy metals in the soil micro-biome during a remediation process?

A. Increased mobilization of heavy metals
B. Inhibition of biological processes
C. Iron precipitation
D. Increase in soil fertility
Answer» E.
39.

If the majority of the mechanism of bio-remediation process is an anaerobic process, then oxygen presence becomes toxic.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
40.

Some soil remediation processes enhance the presiding micro-bacteria and bio-augment the clean-up process by adding fungi to the respective soil.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
41.

Aerobic bio degradation has a minimum oxygen requirement of __________

A. 0.5 mg/litre
B. 2 mg/litre
C. 1 mg/litre
D. 1.5 mg/litre
Answer» C. 1 mg/litre
42.

Bioaugmentation requires the introduction of selected microbes to bring about the remediation process.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
43.

Bio enhancement stimulates the existing micro fauna by ______

A. Manipulating the local environmental conditions
B. Entering the food chain
C. Increasing dissolved oxygen
D. Producing methane gas
Answer» B. Entering the food chain
44.

Functional biology is usually described as a process of bio enhancement (and/or) ____________

A. Bio augmentation
B. Bio-accumulation
C. Bio-degradation
D. Bio-magnification
Answer» B. Bio-accumulation
45.

Which of the following treatment options is not suitable for areas where contaminants don’t cause a potential harm to human health and the environment?

A. Natural attenuation
B. Passive remediation
C. Bio attenuation
D. Live attenuated
Answer» E.
46.

Which among the following does not determine the suitability of soil remediation?

A. Nutrient availability
B. Presence of other inhibitory contaminants
C. Oxygenation
D. Pathogens
Answer» E.
47.

Which of the following type of soil is suitable for soil remediation?

A. Peaty Soil
B. Sandy soil
C. Less or no organic content soil
D. Soil with gravels
Answer» B. Sandy soil
48.

20-30°C is the ideal range for bioremediation as it optimizes _______

A. Enzyme activity
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. pH
Answer» B. Temperature
49.

What is the preferable range of temperature for bioremediation by soil microorganisms?

A. 0-50 °C
B. 50-60 °C
C. 80-100 °C
D. 120-150 °C
Answer» B. 50-60 °C
50.

Bio remediation does not rely on the natural abilities of soil micro-organisms.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.