Explore topic-wise MCQs in Current Affairs.

This section includes 3246 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1401.

A ………………. Is a set of questions which are asked and filled in bythe interviewer in a face to face situation with another person.

A. Schedule
B. questionnaire
C. check-list
D. none of these.
Answer» B. questionnaire
1402.

Data processing consists of …………., coding and tabulation.

A. Editing
B. entry
C. classification
D. none of these.
Answer» B. entry
1403.

……………follows an approach which is “top-down”.

A. Retroduction
B. induction
C. deduction
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
1404.

…………. Analysis is a mathematical tool which is used to describe thedegree to which one variable is linearly related to each other.

A. Regression
B. correlation
C. variance
D. none of these.
Answer» C. variance
1405.

…………is a tentative explanation for an observation, phenomenon, orscientific problem that can be tested by further investigation.

A. Theory
B. concept
C. construct
D. hypothesis
Answer» E.
1406.

………. Is the process by which response categories are summarized bynumerals or other symbols?

A. Editing
B. coding
C. classifying
D. tabulating
Answer» C. classifying
1407.

Measurement that involves monitoring a respondent’s involuntary responses to marketing stimulivia the use of electrodes and other equipment is called

A. Projective Technique
B. Physiological measures
C. Depth Interviews
D. Multi-dimensional Scales
Answer» C. Depth Interviews
1408.

In ……..research, the researchers try to find out answers for unsolvedquestions related with business problems.

A. Management
B. administration
C. business
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
1409.

……..is a specific statement of prediction.

A. Concept
B. construct
C. proposition
D. hypothesis
Answer» E.
1410.

……..… is an example of random number table.

A. Tippet’s table
B. logarithm table
C. Chi- square table
D. none of these
Answer» B. logarithm table
1411.

Survey is an important ……… of research.

A. Manipulation
B. method
C. result
D. event
Answer» C. result
1412.

What are the types of Random or probability sampling?

A. Area sampling and Judgemental sampling
B. Stratified sampling and Area sampling
C. Judgemental sampling and Quota sampling
D. Sequential sampling
Answer» C. Judgemental sampling and Quota sampling
1413.

Sampling is the process of selecting units from a ……… of interest

A. Population
B. phenomenon
C. place
D. space
Answer» B. phenomenon
1414.

……….. is the most common measure of central tendency.

A. Mode
B. median
C. mean
D. range
Answer» D. range
1415.

………. Research does not follow any formalized pattern

A. Exploratory
B. Descriptive
C. Casual
D. Experimental
Answer» B. Descriptive
1416.

The most common scales used in research are

A. Nominal
B. Ratio
C. Ordinal
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
1417.

Greg Beck of Quality Market Research tells placement student John to go out and select for personal interview ten men and ten women. Greg is using __________ sampling for this phase of the research.

A. Random
B. Stratified
C. Quota
D. Area
Answer» D. Area
1418.

There are ……… primary scales of measurement.

A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer» E.
1419.

……………research is mainly concerned with generalizations and withthe formulation of a theory.

A. Basic
B. exploratory
C. applied
D. experimental
Answer» B. exploratory
1420.

Which of the following is not an individual document?

A. Life history
B. diary (
C. letter
D. newspaper
Answer» E.
1421.

Method that involves the selection of items by a panel of judges on the basis of their relevance,the potential for ambiguity, and the level of the attitude they represent

A. Cumulative scale
B. Arbitrary Scale
C. Item Analysis
D. Consensus Scaling
Answer» E.
1422.

A ......................refers to one which provides several set of alternativesfor its answers.

A. Closed
B. open
C. multiple choice question
D. none of these.
Answer» D. none of these.
1423.

The Information Technology Act, 2000 come into force on :

A. 9th June, 2000
B. 17th October, 2000
C. 15th December, 2000
D. none of these
Answer» C. 15th December, 2000
1424.

Any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits a message is,under the IT Act, known as

A. intermediary
B. originator’s agent
C. addressee
D. keyholder
Answer» B. originator’s agent
1425.

The Information Technology Act shall not apply to

A. a negotiable instrument other than a cheque
B. a power of attorney
C. any contract for the sale of immovable property
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
1426.

A person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record is, under the ITAct, known as

A. intermediary
B. originator’s agent
C. addressee
D. keyholder
Answer» D. keyholder
1427.

The key of a pair used to create a digital signature is known as

A. public key
B. private key
C. creator key
D. secret key
Answer» C. creator key
1428.

The key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature

A. public key
B. private key
C. verifying key
D. secret key
Answer» B. private key
1429.

The Digital Signature Certificate under the IT Act, 2000 is issued by the :

A. Controller
B. Certifying Authority
C. Appellate Tribunal
D. Cyber Authority
Answer» C. Appellate Tribunal
1430.

An electronic record, under the IT Act, 2000, can be authenticated by the subscriber by:

A. affixing his digital signature
B. preserving private key
C. verification
D. both (b) & (c)
Answer» B. preserving private key
1431.

An application for the issue of Digital Signature Certificate should be accompanied by theprescribed fee not exceeding

A. Rs. 15,000
B. Rs. 20,000
C. Rs. 25,000
D. Rs. 30,000
Answer» D. Rs. 30,000
1432.

An adjudicating officer, under the IT Act, 2000, for holding inquiry and imposing penalty isappointed by the

A. Controller
B. Central Government
C. Cyber Appellate Tribunal
D. High Court
Answer» C. Cyber Appellate Tribunal
1433.

Any person who, without the permission of the owner, damages any computer, computersystem or computer network shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation under the IT Act, 2000 upto:

A. one lakh rupees
B. ten lakh rupees
C. one crore rupees
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
1434.

The Information Technology Act is popularly known as

A. cyber law
B. electronic law
C. hacking law
D. security law
Answer» B. electronic law
1435.

Key pair includes

A. public key
B. private key
C. both (a) & (b)
D. pass key
Answer» D. pass key
1436.

__________ is the unique value for message or content

A. Hash
B. Encryption
C. Message digest
D. Private key
Answer» D. Private key
1437.

The electronic governance means and includes

A. filing any form online
B. make application online
C. filing any form offline
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» E.
1438.

What are the benefits of electronic governance?

A. low cost
B. efficient working of government
C. transparency in working of government
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
1439.

Appeal can be made to the ___________ against the order of appellate tribunal

A. Magistrate Court
B. Supreme Court
C. High Court
D. both (a) & (b)
Answer» D. both (a) & (b)
1440.

Appeal can be made to high court against the order of appellate tribunal within ____ days.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 90
Answer» C. 45
1441.

The effect of refusal to accept a properly made offer of performance is that:

A. the promisor is not responsible for non-performance and can sue the promisee for the breach of contract.
B. such offer lapses on rejection by the offeree.
C. the contract is rendered voidable at the option of promisor.
D. the contract is discharged by anticipatory breach.
Answer» B. such offer lapses on rejection by the offeree.
1442.

The digital signature can be suspended by the certifying authority in case of

A. public interest
B. interest of user
C. interest of any person
D. both (a) & (c)
Answer» B. interest of user
1443.

Which of the following may employ an agent?

A. any person who is capable of understanding the contract and forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest.
B. any person who is engaged in business or profession.
C. any person who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject and who is of sound mi
Answer» D.
1444.

The controller shall publish notice of _______ of licence in the database maintained by him.

A. suspension
B. revocation
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
1445.

In which of the following circumstances a contract can be treated as discharged under theconcept of supervening impossibility?

A. spurt in prices
B. change in import policy
C. non-receipt of raw material from the supplier
D. shortage of working capital
Answer» C. non-receipt of raw material from the supplier
1446.

The consent is said to be free when:

A. two or more persons agree upon same thing in the same sense.
B. all parties to the contract benefit from the contract.
C. it is not the result of coercion or undue influence or fraud or misrepresentation or
D. all of the above.
Answer» D. all of the above.
1447.

Fraud means

A. suggestion as a fact, of something which is not true, by a person who does not believe it to be true
B. active concealment of a fact
C. promise made without any intention of performing it
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
1448.

In a contract of sale of goods, condition as to merchantable quality of goods applies

A. where goods are bought by description.
B. where the goods are bought from the person who deals in the goods for that description.
C. where goods are sold under a trade mark.
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
1449.

X contract to deliver 1000 bags of wheat at Rs. 100 per bag on a future date. On the duedate, he refuses to deliver. The market price on that day is Rs. 120 per bag. Which damages can be granted by the court

A. Ordinary damage
B. Special damage
C. Remote
D. Vindictive damage
Answer» B. Special damage
1450.

When a person has done some work under a contract and the other party repudiates thecontract, then the party who performed the work can claim remuneration for the work done. This is based on the principle of

A. rescission
B. quantum meruit
C. injunction
D. specific performance
Answer» C. injunction