Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem can be reduced to Lagrange’s Mean Val – McqOptions

MCQOPTIONS

1.	Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem can be reduced to Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem.
A.	True
B.	False
Answer» B. False

Discussion

No Comment Found

Related MCQs

L’Hospital’s Rule was first discovered by Marquis de L’Hospital.
What is the value of the given limit, \(\lim_{x\to 0}⁡\frac{2}{x}\)?
Which of the following method is used to simplify the evaluation of limits?
What is the value of c which lies in [1, 2] for the function f(x)=4x and g(x)=3x2?
What is the largest possible value of f(0), where f(x) is continuous and differentiable on the interval [-5, 0], such that f(-5)= 8 and f'(c)≤2.
Find the value of c which satisfies the Mean Value Theorem for the given function,f(x)= x2+2x+1 on [1,2].
The Mean Value Theorem was stated and proved by _______
Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem is also known as ‘Extended Mean Value Theorem’.
Which of the following is not a necessary condition for Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem?a) The functions, f(x) and g(x) be continuous in [a, b] b) The derivation of g'(x) be equal to 0c) The functions f(x) and g(x) be derivable in (a, b)d) There exists a value c Є (a, b) such that, \(\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{g(b)-g(
Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem can be reduced to Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem.