Explore topic-wise MCQs in Embedded Systems.

This section includes 1267 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Embedded Systems knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

151.

Zero sequence current is used for relaying purpose only in the case of

A. Phase over current really
B. Phase impedance relay
C. Ground over current relay
D. Ground impedance relay
Answer» D. Ground impedance relay
152.

What is the main purpose of oil in oil circuit breakers?

A. Provide insulation
B. Quenching ar(C)
C. Provide cooling of contacts.
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Provide cooling of contacts.
153.

The most commonly used method for the protection of three phase feeder is

A. Time graded protection
B. Differential protection
C. Reverse power protection
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Reverse power protection
154.

The bias factor S in unit protection synchronous generators

A. Lies between .05 and .1 pu
B. Is less than .05 pu
C. Lies between .1 to .25 pu
D. Is greater than .025 pu
Answer» B. Is less than .05 pu
155.

Distance protection scheme is preferred over graded lime-lag over-current protection in HV and EHV lines because

A. It is faster in operation
B. It is simple
C. It is cheaper in cost
D. All of the above
Answer» B. It is simple
156.

What is the advantage of using oil as the arc quenching medium?

A. Good cooling properties.
B. High dielectric strength.
C. Acts as an insulator.
D. All of these.
Answer» E.
157.

What is the major drawback of using SF6 circuit breakers?

A. Sealing problems of the gas.
B. Ingress of moisture in the gas system – dangerous.
C. Deterioration of SF6 gas with time.
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer» E.
158.

As soon as a fault develops in a generator stator, it is essential to suppress field excitation, otherwise

A. Terminal voltage will drop
B. It may lead to loss of synchronism
C. It will continue to supply power to the stator winding fault
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
159.

Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimummaintenance ?

A. Air blast circuit breakers
B. Circuit breaker with SF6 gas
C. Vacuum circuit breakers
D. Oil circuit breakers
Answer» C. Vacuum circuit breakers
160.

The transient voltages that appears across the contacts at the instant of arcextinction is called ..............voltage

A. Supply
B. Recovery
C. Restriking
D. Peak
Answer» D. Peak
161.

On what factor does the operating speed of the relay depend?

A. Rate of flux built up
B. Armature core air gap
C. Spring tension
D. All of these
Answer» E.
162.

Which is the pilotless protection method for feeder line ?

A. Differential protection
B. Carrier current protection
C. Time credit protection
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Time credit protection
163.

The relay used for phase fault protection of short transmission lines is

A. Reactance relay
B. Impedance relay
C. Mho relay
D. IDMT relay
Answer» B. Impedance relay
164.

In a HRC fuse what is the time between the cut off and the final current zerocalled?

A. Pre - arcing time.
B. Arcing time.
C. Total operating time.
D. None of these.
Answer» C. Total operating time.
165.

The protection against direct lighting strokes and a high-voltage steep waves isprovided by

A. Ground wires
B. Lightning arresters
C. Lightning arresters and ground wires
D. Earthing of neutral
Answer» D. Earthing of neutral
166.

The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by

A. Increasing the concentration of ionised particles.
B. Reducing the arc length.
C. Splitting the ar(C)
D. Increasing the arc cross section.
Answer» D. Increasing the arc cross section.
167.

With large reactance interconnector between two power stations

A. The power stations may fall out of step due to large angular displacement between the power stations
B. Power will be transferred with minimum power losses
C. Power will be transferred with voltage fluctuations and noise
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Power will be transferred with minimum power losses
168.

Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest operating voltage?

A. SF6 circuit breaker
B. Air break
C. Air blast
D. Minimum oil circuit breaker
Answer» C. Air blast
169.

............. Relays are used for phase faults on long line

A. Impedance
B. Reactance
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Reactance
170.

The inductive interference between power and communication line can beminimized by

A. transposition of the power line
B. transposition of the communication line
C. both (A) and (B)
D. increasing the distance between the conductors
Answer» D. increasing the distance between the conductors
171.

What is switchgear?

A. An apparatus used for switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuits and equipments.
B. It detects the faults only.
C. It corrects the faults only.
D. All of the above.
Answer» E.
172.

Liquid penetrants can be classified into the types of dyes they contain:

A. Visible/colour contrast
B. Fluorescent
C. Dual sensitivity
D. All of the listed is correct
Answer» E.
173.

In the radiographic analysis procedure that is used to prepare an exposure chart, thefirst step is to:

A. Make a series of radiographs of a step wedge
B. Radiograph several objects of known thickness
C. Convert the densities read from the radiographs to a standard density
D. Plot the exposures on a graph
Answer» B. Radiograph several objects of known thickness
174.

An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flawswhich are found are called:

A. A scan
B. B scan
C. C scan
D. Orthogonal view
Answer» C. C scan
175.

Which of the following circuits provides short duration, high energy pulses which areused to excite the transducer?

A. The pulse generator
B. The amplifier
C. The transducer
D. The clock
Answer» B. The amplifier
176.

The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic testresults is:

A. The ultrasonic signal amplitude
B. A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction
C. A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics
D. The ultrasonic signal location
Answer» C. A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics
177.

Transducer focal lengths are normally specified as:

A. Distance in steel
B. Distance in aluminium
C. Distance in air
D. Distance in water
Answer» B. Distance in aluminium
178.

Why should one avoid using a high velocity flow of a wet testing media over the testarea

A. It may wash away a fine or lightly held indication
B. This is not a problem
C. It may splash particle into eyes
D. None of the above are correct
Answer» B. This is not a problem
179.

What effect does hardening have on acoustic velocity in steel?

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No effect
D. Any of the above
Answer» D. Any of the above
180.

If 37 GBq (1 Ci), of Ir-92 produces dose rate of 0.59 Gy/h (59000 mR/h) at 30.5 cm (1foot), how much dose in Gy/h (R/h) will 370 GBq (10 Ci) produce at the same distance?

A. 0.59 Gy/h (59000R/h)
B. 0.0059 Gy/h (590 R/h)
C. 5.9 Gy/h (590,000 R/h)
D. 0.00059 Gy/h (59 R/h)
Answer» D. 0.00059 Gy/h (59 R/h)
181.

The speed of sound in a given material depends on:

A. The specific acoustic impedance of the material
B. The acoustic impedance and density of the material
C. The density and elasticity of the material
D. The piezo-electric resistance of the material
Answer» D. The piezo-electric resistance of the material
182.

A A larger diameter crystal results in:

A. Greater beam spread
B. Lower penetrating power
C. Less beam spread
D. Greater penetrating power
Answer» D. Greater penetrating power
183.

Which of the following is not a function of the lead screen placed around radiographic film?

A. Increase the photographic action on the film
B. Selectively absorbs scattered radiation
C. Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam
D. To mask the test piece
Answer» C. Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam
184.

Low sulphur and chlorine penetrant materials would be used for testing:

A. Aluminium, steel and plastics
B. Tool steels, chrome vanadium steel and ferritic stainless steels
C. Austenitic stainless steels, nickel alloys and titanium
D. Magnetic materials
Answer» D. Magnetic materials
185.

Radiographic equivalence factors for Inconel and 304 stainless steel are 1.4 and 1.0 respectively. What is the approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel requiring the same exposure as 1.27 cm (½ inch) thickness of 304 stainless steel?

A. 1.27 cm (0.50 inches)
B. 1.78 cm (0.70 inches)
C. 0.9 cm (0.36 inches)
D. 3.55 cm (1.40 inches)
Answer» D. 3.55 cm (1.40 inches)
186.

In which zone does the amplitude of an indication from a given discontinuitydiminish exponentially as the distance increases?

A. Far field zone
B. Near field zone
C. Dead zone
D. Fresnel zone
Answer» B. Near field zone
187.

A disadvantage of water soluble developers is:

A. Agitation of the developer is not required
B. A uniform developer film is obtained
C. The dried developer is difficult to remove during post cleaning
D. None of the above
Answer» E.
188.

Which of the following would be likely to cause variations in the output of aninspection black light?

A. Voltage fluctuations
B. Aged bulb
C. Dirty filter
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
189.

Which of the following colours is readily available for magnetic particle test powder?

A. Red
B. Gray
C. Black
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
190.

Which of the following types of radiation is particulate?

A. X
B. Gamma
C. Alpha
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
191.

Which of the following is not (!) a requirement of a couplant?

A. Easy application
B. Highly penetrating
C. Harmless both to the test piece and transducers
D. Excludes all air between transducer and test piece
Answer» C. Harmless both to the test piece and transducers
192.

Magnetic lines of flux which are parallel to a discontinuity produce:

A. Strong indications
B. Weak indications
C. No indications
D. Fuzzy indications
Answer» D. Fuzzy indications
193.

How many ampere-turns are required to magnetize a part that is 40.6 cm (16 inches)long and 5 cm (2 inches) in diameter?

A. 9000 ampere-turns
B. 5625 ampere-turns
C. 2812 ampere-turns
D. None of the above
Answer» C. 2812 ampere-turns
194.

When a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on the CRT of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its:

A. Distance-amplitude height
B. Absorption level
C. Vertical level
D. Limit of resolution
Answer» D. Limit of resolution
195.

Radiographic contrast is dependant on:

A. Density
B. Processing
C. Radiation energy
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
196.

The ability to separate echoes from reflectors close together in depth is called:

A. Resolution
B. Attenuation
C. Accuracy
D. Sensitivity
Answer» B. Attenuation
197.

The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece iscalled:

A. Dwell time
B. Soaking time
C. Fixing time
D. Development time
Answer» B. Soaking time
198.

The limitation of a liquid penetrant test is:

A. Only surface breaking discontinuities can be detected if chemically and physically clean and dry
B. Porous materials cannot be tested
C. There is cleaning problem following penetrant inspection in some cases
D. All of the listed limitations are correct
Answer» C. There is cleaning problem following penetrant inspection in some cases
199.

Which of the following viewing conditions is most desirable for interpreting radiographic film?

A. Brightness of surroundings approximately the same as the area of interest on the radiograph
B. Totally dark viewing room
C. Well lit viewing room
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Totally dark viewing room
200.

What is the magnetic field strength at the surface of a 25 mm diameter bar as comparedto that at the surface of a 50 mm diameter bar, each carrying 1000 amps of current?

A. Twice
B. One half
C. One quarter
D. Four times
Answer» B. One half