Explore topic-wise MCQs in Lisp.

This section includes 349 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Lisp knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

How many types of piRNA have been discovered so far?

A. 10000
B. 60000
C. 190
D. 1000
Answer» C. 190
2.

Translation is the process of _____________________

A. mRNA synthesis
B. tRNA synthesis
C. protein synthesis
D. nucleic acid synthesis
Answer» D. nucleic acid synthesis
3.

At least how many complementary sequences must be present on mRNA for it to be bound by miRNA?

A. 8
B. 1
C. 2
D. 20
Answer» B. 1
4.

How many types of distinct ribosomal RNAs are present in eukaryotic ribosomes?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» E.
5.

What drives the conformational change in the ribosome?

A. GTP hydrolysis
B. AMP hydrolysis
C. ATP hydrolysis
D. GDP hydrolysis
Answer» B. AMP hydrolysis
6.

Degradation of cellular unwanted proteins is carried out in _________

A. Proteasomes
B. Lysosome
C. Peroxisomes
D. Ribosomes
Answer» B. Lysosome
7.

Which of following describes passing of traits not controlled by DNA sequence itself?

A. post transcriptional modifications
B. epigenetic inheritance
C. post translational modification
D. operons
Answer» C. post translational modification
8.

Deletion maps are used to determine sites in the genome which interact with ___________________

A. transcription factors
B. polymerase
C. ribonuclease
D. endonuclease
Answer» B. polymerase
9.

Ribonuclease P is involve in the processing of ___________________

A. sno RNA
B. rRNA
C. pre-tRNA
D. pre-mRNA
Answer» D. pre-mRNA
10.

When was the first base sequence of a transfer RNA reported?

A. 1935
B. 1945
C. 1955
D. 1965
Answer» E.
11.

Importance of transcription factors in embryonic stem cells was demonstrated in ______________

A. 1990
B. 1994
C. 2000
D. 2006
Answer» E.
12.

Which enzyme unwinds the DNA?

A. helicase
B. topoisomerase
C. nuclease
D. endonuclease
Answer» B. topoisomerase
13.

What are small scale mutations at DNA level called?

A. point mutation
B. translocation
C. segment deletion
D. splicing
Answer» B. translocation
14.

Physical processes that give an organism its shape are called

A. differentiation
B. translation
C. recombination
D. metamorphosis
Answer» E.
15.

The cry-of-the-cat syndrome is due to a defect in chromosome __________

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 9
Answer» D. 9
16.

Each enhancer is composed of approximately how many control elements?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 2
D. 50
Answer» B. 20
17.

Attachment of which of following is not involved in gene regulation?

A. methyl
B. acetyl
C. phosphate
D. hydrogen
Answer» E.
18.

In making of which of following does lens cell specialize?

A. bile
B. blood
C. Crystallin
D. albumin
Answer» D. albumin
19.

Which of following is true for mRNA of Hemoglobin polypeptides?

A. made only once
B. unusually unstable
C. slightly stable
D. unusually stable
Answer» E.
20.

Under minimal conditions, the cell has fewer than 5 copies of enzyme β-galactosidase.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
21.

Which of following is generally thought to promote transcription by opening chromatin structure?

A. DNA methylation
B. histone methylation
C. histone acetylation
D. phosphate addition
Answer» D. phosphate addition
22.

Which of the following moves in consecutive blocks of three nucleotides?

A. ribosome
B. ribozyme
C. polymerase
D. helicase
Answer» B. ribozyme
23.

Which types of changes participate in the process of natural selection?

A. nonsynonymous
B. phenotypic
C. allotypic
D. synonymous
Answer» B. phenotypic
24.

In what percentage of cancer do p53 mutations occur?

A. 90
B. 40
C. 10
D. 50
Answer» E.
25.

Signal peptide is consists of how many amino acids?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer» C. 30
26.

Which of the following is a rare genetic disorder?

A. Myeloma
B. Meningitis
C. Fanconi anemia
D. Breast cancer
Answer» D. Breast cancer
27.

Inversions can lead to a deletion or duplication in the chromosome.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
28.

When was it first discovered that RNA molecules are capable of catalyzing chemical reactions?

A. 1962
B. 1972
C. 1982
D. 1992
Answer» D. 1992
29.

How many DNA nucleotides are exposed when once unwound?

A. up to 20
B. up to 80
C. up to 100
D. up to 300
Answer» B. up to 80
30.

Which of following generally turns off genes or is present on genes in cells where they are not expressed?

A. DNA methylation
B. histone acetylation
C. phosphate addition
D. histone methylation
Answer» B. histone acetylation
31.

What is process of passing methylation patterns from parent to offspring's called?

A. methyl regulation
B. methyl formation
C. methylation inheritance
D. genomic imprinting
Answer» E.
32.

Which of following proteins becomes functional only after a central part of it is cleaved during post-translational modification?

A. kinase
B. protease
C. chaperon
D. insulin
Answer» E.
33.

Ultraviolet rays can act as a mutagen by affecting which of following?

A. thymine dimers in DNA
B. guanine dimers in DNA
C. protein structure
D. mRNA
Answer» B. guanine dimers in DNA
34.

Transfer RNA linked to an amino acid is called _____________

A. a-tRNA
B. amino-tRNA
C. tRNA
D. aa-tRNA
Answer» E.
35.

To carry out translational-level control, miRNAs bind to __________ of their target mRNAs.

A. 3’
B. 5’
C. intergenic sites
D. exonuclease sites
Answer» B. 5’
36.

Segments of non-coding DNA that serve as binding sites for transcription factors are called

A. control elements
B. binding elements
C. initiator complex
D. transcription elements
Answer» B. binding elements
37.

Sequence-specific transcription factors can act as transcriptional activators or repressors.

A. True
B. False
C. May be True or False
D. Can't say
Answer» B. False
38.

Which type of control determines for how long will a particular mRNA be translated?

A. Replication-level
B. Translational-level
C. Transcriptional-level
D. Processing-level
Answer» C. Transcriptional-level
39.

Chromatin immuno-precipitation is induced by _____________________

A. antigens
B. antibodies
C. anti-histamines
D. anti-allergens
Answer» C. anti-histamines
40.

How many changes must occur at DNA level for a cell to become fully cancerous?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 100
D. 6
Answer» E.
41.

When were the first structures of ribosomal subunits made by scientists?

A. 1980
B. 1990
C. 2000
D. 2010
Answer» D. 2010
42.

Which of following is basic unit of structure?

A. cells
B. tissues
C. organs
D. systems
Answer» B. tissues
43.

The first amino acid incorporated at the N-terminus of polypeptide is ___________________

A. methionine
B. cysteine
C. tryptophan
D. valine
Answer» B. cysteine
44.

Discrete functional and structural regions in proteins are called

A. beads
B. fingers
C. motifs
D. domains
Answer» E.
45.

The studies that led to discovery of posttranscriptional gene silencing phenomena were performed on ____________

A. petunia
B. sunflower
C. maize
D. wheat
Answer» B. sunflower
46.

What is molecular weight in Daltons of p53 protein?

A. 5300
B. 5.3
C. 53000
D. 53
Answer» D. 53
47.

Drosophila egg is surrounded by which of following?

A. albumin
B. nurse cells
C. yolk
D. oocytes
Answer» C. yolk
48.

Which of the following is a stop codon in mitochondrial mRNA?

A. AUG
B. UUU
C. AGG
D. UGA
Answer» D. UGA
49.

A single gene can encode two or more related proteins by the process of _________________

A. gene silencing
B. alternative splicing
C. recombination
D. transcription
Answer» C. recombination
50.

Which organism was used for experiments that led to “one gene – one enzyme” hypothesis?

A. Neurospora
B. Nematode
C. Mus musculus
D. Drosophila
Answer» B. Nematode