Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

In a two tailed test when a Null Hypothesis is rejected for a True Alternative Hypothesis then it has ____________

A. Type 1 error
B. Type 2 error
C. No error
D. Many errors
Answer» D. Many errors
2.

If a hypothesis is rejected at 0.6 Level of Significance then ______________

A. it will be rejected at any level
B. it must be rejected at 0.5 level
C. it may be rejected at 0.5 level
D. it cannot be rejected at 0.5 level
Answer» D. it cannot be rejected at 0.5 level
3.

What is the assumption made for performing the hypothesis test with T distribution?

A. the distribution is non-symmetric
B. the distribution has more than one modal class
C. the distribution has a constant variance
D. the distribution follows a normal distribution
Answer» E.
4.

Which of the following bridge can be used for measuring very low quality factor?

A. Hay’s Bridge
B. Maxwell Bridge
C. Anderson Bridge
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
5.

Maxwell Bridge is used for measuring_______________

A. Low quality coil (Q<1)
B. Medium quality coil (1<Q<10)
C. High quality coil (Q>10)
D. All quality coil (any value of Q)
Answer» C. High quality coil (Q>10)
6.

Why Kelvin Bridge is known as a double bridge?

A. Two power supplies
B. Two unknowns
C. Two ratio arms
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
7.

Which of the following bridge can function as voltage to the current converter?

A. Carey-foster bridge
B. Kelvin Bridge
C. Fontana Bridge
D. H-bridge
Answer» D. H-bridge
8.

Which of the following represents the arrangement of Wheatstone bridge?

A. Potentiometer
B. Weinbridge
C. Schering bridge
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. Schering bridge
9.

Wheatstone bridge is used to measure ________________

A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance
D. All of the mentioned
Answer» E.
10.

The LINK instruction is always followed by ____________ instruction.

A. MOV
B. UNLK
C. ORG
D. MOVEM
Answer» E.
11.

____________ instruction is used to set up a frame pointer for the subroutines in 68000.

A. CREATE
B. LINK
C. UNLK
D. FRAME
Answer» C. UNLK
12.

The 68000 uses ____________ method to access I/O devices buffers.

A. Memory mapped
B. I/O mapped
C. Buffer mapped
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» B. I/O mapped
13.

The purpose of using DBcc as a branch instruction is __________

A. It provides two conditions to be satisfied for a branch to occur
B. It provides a counter to check the number of times the branch as taken place
C. It is used to check the condition along with the branch condition
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» E.
14.

To allocate a block of memory we use ___________ directive.

A. RESERVE
B. DS
C. DATAWORD
D. PLACE
Answer» C. DATAWORD
15.

The constant can be declared using ___________ directive.

A. DATAWORD
B. PLACE
C. CONS
D. DC
Answer» E.
16.

The starting address is denoted using _________ directive.

A. EQU
B. ORIGIN
C. ORG
D. PLACE
Answer» D. PLACE
17.

As the instructions can deal with variable size operands we use ____________ to resolve this.

A. Delimiter
B. Size indicator mnemonic
C. Special assemblers
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. Special assemblers
18.

Which is the most used method for seasoning of wooden sleepers in India?

A. Air seasoning
B. Artificial seasoning
C. Boulton seasoning
D. Kiln seasoning
Answer» B. Artificial seasoning
19.

This process of cutting the wooden sleeper at a slope of 1 in 20 is known as ________

A. adzing of wooden sleepers
B. laying of wooden sleepers
C. seasoning of sleepers
D. prophylactic treatment of sleepers
Answer» B. laying of wooden sleepers
20.

In which type of sleepers the heartwood side is kept upwards and the sapwood side downwards?

A. Treated sleepers
B. Untreated sleepers
C. Both treated and untreated sleepers
D. Neither treated nor untreated sleepers
Answer» B. Untreated sleepers
21.

Which of the following is not a way of stacking of sleepers?

A. One and nine method
B. Close crib method
C. Open crib method
D. Nine and one method
Answer» E.
22.

Seasoning of sleepers is done to remove the excess preservative from the wood?

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
23.

What is used for removing the moisture content in Boulton process?

A. Water (cold)
B. Hot preservative
C. Natural air
D. Hot preservativec) Natural aird) Prophylactic treatment
Answer» C. Natural air
24.

Why is prophylactic treatment of sleepers done?

A. To prevent infection at the treatment plant
B. To make it stronger
C. To remove excess preservative
D. To remove creosote oil
Answer» B. To make it stronger
25.

What is the order for recovery of preservatives in these processes?

A. Rueping process < Lowry process < Bethell process
B. Rueping process > Lowry process > Bethell process
C. Rueping process < Lowry process < Bethell process
D. Rueping process = Lowry process = Bethell process
Answer» C. Rueping process < Lowry process < Bethell process
26.

Where are Fir sleepers used?

A. Lines with traffic density less than 10GMT
B. Lines with traffic density less than 30GMT
C. All main lines
D. All trunk routes
Answer» B. Lines with traffic density less than 30GMT
27.

Empty cell (Rueping) process is used for treating which type of timber?

A. Hard timber
B. Porous timber
C. Soft wood
D. Deodar timber
Answer» C. Soft wood
28.

Why a final vacuum is applied in the Full cell process?

A. To free the timber of excessive preservative
B. To add extra preservative
C. To maintain equilibrium
D. To drain the creosote oil
Answer» B. To add extra preservative
29.

In which process maximum retention of hot creosote oil is practiced?

A. Full cell process
B. Empty cell process
C. Seasoning of sleepers
D. Prophylactic treatment of sleepers
Answer» B. Empty cell process
30.

What is another name of Full cell method?

A. Bethell process
B. Rueping process
C. Lowry process
D. Andrew process
Answer» B. Rueping process
31.

The slope of discharge face can exceed _______

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Answer» E.
32.

In the figure the face KF is _________

A. seepage face
B. velocity face
C. discharge face
D. pressure face
Answer» D. pressure face
33.

In the earth dam with no filter, the base parabola does not cut the d/s slope.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
34.

The base parabola is the ________

A. top flow line
B. middle flow line
C. bottom flow line
D. ¼ of top flow line
Answer» B. middle flow line
35.

The focus in an earth dam with no filter is ________

A. lowest point of d/s slope
B. highest point of d/s slope
C. high flood level
D. medium flood level
Answer» B. highest point of d/s slope
36.

The phreatic line is defined as the line within a dam section below which there are ________ in dam.

A. positive hydrostatic pressures
B. negative hydrostatic pressures
C. neutral hydrostatic pressures
D. no hydrostatic pressure
Answer» B. negative hydrostatic pressures
37.

The phreatic line is also known as the ________

A. seepage line
B. discharge line
C. velocity line
D. pressure line
Answer» B. discharge line
38.

The phreatic line is the ________

A. top flow line separating saturated and unsaturated zones
B. middle flow line separating saturated and unsaturated zones
C. bottom flow line separating saturated and unsaturated zones
D. bottom flow line separating saturated and partially saturated zones
Answer» B. middle flow line separating saturated and unsaturated zones
39.

The phreatic line can be located by Casagrande method.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
40.

Combustion of pulverised coal as compared to that of lump coal _____________

A. develops a non-luminous flame
B. can be done with less excess air
C. develops a low temperature flame
D. provides a lower rate of heat release
Answer» C. develops a low temperature flame
41.

Calorific value of coal middling generated in coal washeries during washing of coal may be around __________ Kcal/kg.

A. 1000
B. 4000
C. 6000
D. 8000
Answer» C. 6000
42.

Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around __________ m/sec.

A. 0.5
B. 500
C. 10
D. 50
Answer» D. 50
43.

If the enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, ΔG° is equal to _____________

A. TΔS°
B. -TΔS°
C. -ΔH°
D. lnKeq
Answer» C. -ΔH°
44.

The free energy of chemical elements at 1 atm & 25HoC is assumed to be?

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Zero
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
45.

Control charts with points around mean and in predicted or fixed manner indicate ________

A. Stationary variability
B. Non-stationary variability
C. Auto correlated variability
D. Process out of control
Answer» B. Non-stationary variability
46.

The control charts formed for judgment of conformities and non-conformities are called ______ control charts.

A. Variables
B. Attributes
C. Acceptance
D. Rejections
Answer» C. Acceptance
47.

Control charts for central tendency and the variability are called _________ control charts.

A. Variables
B. Attributes
C. Acceptance
D. Rejections
Answer» B. Attributes
48.

Which of these can be used to estimate capability of the process?

A. Control charts
B. Process mean
C. Acceptance Sampling
D. Designed Experiments
Answer» B. Process mean
49.

Which of these is a part of corrective action process associated with a control chart?

A. OCAP
B. DMAIC
C. OC curve
D. LCL
Answer» B. DMAIC
50.

The center line of a control chart will be having a value ______

A. Higher than mean of quality characteristic
B. Lower than mean of quality characteristic
C. Equal to mean of quality characteristic
D. Which is higher than UCL
Answer» D. Which is higher than UCL