Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

All are true about indiopathic hypertrophic aortic stenosis except -

A. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
B. Sudden death
C. May have associated MR
D. Verapamil may ameliorate symptoms
Answer» B. Sudden death
2.

All the following are features of Scleroderma except

A. Dysphagia
B. Raynaud's phenomenon
C. Skin contracrture
D. Calcification in all the long bones
Answer» E.
3.

Which of the following Beck's Triad is seen:

A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Constrictive Pericarditis
C. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
D. Right ventricular Myocardial Infarction(RVMI)
Answer» B. Constrictive Pericarditis
4.

An elderly patient with hypertension with diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure, antihypertensive of choice is -

A. Furosemide
B. Methyldopa
C. Enalapril
D. Propranolol
Answer» D. Propranolol
5.

Pulsus bisferiens is best felt over:

A. Carotid artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Radial artery
D. Femoral artery
Answer» D. Femoral artery
6.

Age related dementia has been associated with increased levels of:

A. Tourine
B. Methionine
C. Homocysteine
D. Cysteine
Answer» D. Cysteine
7.

In Alzheimer's disease which area of brain is involved -

A. Cerebral cotex
B. Hippocampus
C. Cerebellum
D. A+B
Answer» E.
8.

Cardiac output increases in all except:

A. PDA
B. Exercise
C. ASD
D. Pregnancy
Answer» D. Pregnancy
9.

SIADH is associated with all except:

A. Decreased plasma osmolality
B. Increased urinary Na
C. Hypertonic saline used for treatment
D. Edema
Answer» E.
10.

The most common form of diabetic neuropathy is -

A. Acutemononeuropathy
B. Autonomic neuropathy
C. Polyradiculopathy
D. Distal symmetric polyneuropathy
Answer» E.
11.

Rajib Singh,35 yrs old HIV positive patient presents with fever,dyspnoea and non-productive cough.He is cyanosed.His chest X-ray reveals bilateral,symmetrical interstitial infiltrates.The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia
Answer» E.
12.

Hypogonadism is seen in

A. Kallman
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Prader-Willi
D. All
Answer» E.
13.

The most common gene mutation occurs in Beta thalassemia is -

A. 619 bp deletion
B. 3.7 bp deletion
C. Intron 1 inversion
D. Intron 22
Answer» D. Intron 22
14.

Medical treatment of pancreatitis are all, except -

A. Cholestyramine
B. Aprotinin
C. Calcium
D. Glucagon
Answer» B. Aprotinin
15.

All are used in status epilepticus, except -

A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Diazepam
D. Phenobarbitone
Answer» C. Diazepam
16.

Normal sized to enlarged kidneys in a patient with chronic renal failure is indicative of -

A. Benign nephrosclerosis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Chronic interstitial nephritis
D. Primary amyloidosis
Answer» E.
17.

Which of the following is/are true about Bell's Palsy -

A. 7 th nerve is the most commonly involved
B. Now Herpes simplex is suspected in the etiology
C. It most commonly leads to facial palsy
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
18.

Commonest cause of hyperlipoproteinemia is:

A. Type-I
B. Type-II
C. ApoG II defect
D. Apo/E abnormality
Answer» C. ApoG II defect
19.

Which of the following drugs has a normal level of alpha fetoprotein value in serum ?

A. Ovarian dysgerminoma
B. Hepatoblastoma
C. Embronyal corcinoma
D. Yolk sac tumours
Answer» B. Hepatoblastoma
20.

Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of thrombolytic agent in setting of an acute anterior wall myocardial wall myocardial infarction -

A. History of CVA with hemiparesis one mouth ago
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Patient's age more than 70 years
D. Patient is on warfarin for A.F. with INR ratio 1.8
Answer» B. Diabetic retinopathy
21.

A 45 yrs old hypertensive male patient presented in the casualty with two hours history of sudden onset of severe headache associated with nausea and vomiting on clinical examination the patient had necks stiffness and right sided ptosis.Rest of the neurological examination was normal.What is the clinical diagnosis:

A. Hypertensive brain haemorrhage
B. Migraine
C. Aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Arteriovenous malformation haemorrhage
Answer» D. Arteriovenous malformation haemorrhage
22.

S4 is caused by -

A. Atrial contraction
B. Papillary muscle action
C. Mitral valve bellowing
D. Turbulent blood flow
Answer» B. Papillary muscle action
23.

First heart sound is produced because of -

A. Closure of A-V valves
B. MR
C. MV prolapse
D. Calcified mitral leaflet
Answer» B. MR
24.

Not a feature of Granulomatous hepatitis -

A. Jaundice is a usual feature
B. Hydralazine administration
C. IV abuse can lead to hepatic granuloma
D. Hepatic granuloma can occur after jejunoileal by pass surgery in obse patients
Answer» B. Hydralazine administration
25.

Which one of the following is not a feature of thyrotoxicosis -

A. Arrhythmia
B. Brisk tendon reflexes
C. Pretibial myxoedema
D. Coarse dry skin
Answer» E.
26.

Which of the following statement is false -

A. Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
B. Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
C. Vit A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vit A diet
D. Increased calcium intake causes iron deficiency
Answer» B. Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
27.

Amit, 15yrs, old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures.Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. Following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except:

A. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20meu g/dL
B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Weight gain of 5 kg
D. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L
Answer» C. Weight gain of 5 kg
28.

Pancytopenia may occur in the following except -

A. Megaloblastic anaemia
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C. Sever iron-deficiency anaemia
D. Hypoplastic anaemia
Answer» D. Hypoplastic anaemia
29.

The following is not seen in mitral valve prolapse -

A. Normal ECG
B. Late systolic murmur
C. Non ejection click
D. Mid-systolic murmur
Answer» E.
30.

Tender hepatomegaly may be due to all except:

A. Cardiac failure
B. Budd-Chiari syndrome
C. Syphilis
D. Amoebic liver abscess
Answer» D. Amoebic liver abscess
31.

Most useful test of the early stage of progressive renal disease is -

A. S. creatinine
B. Creatinine clearance
C. Concentration test
D. PSP
Answer» C. Concentration test
32.

Which of the following is the most common nerve involve in intracranial aneurysm?

A. VIII
B. Occulomotor
C. Trochlear
D. VII
Answer» C. Trochlear
33.

Increased amylase may be seen in A/E-

A. Appendicitis
B. Pancreatic pseudocyst
C. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
D. Perforated peptic ulcer
Answer» B. Pancreatic pseudocyst
34.

Which of the following is a feature of primary adrenal cortical failure ?

A. Hypopigmentation
B. Sodium and water depletion
C. Hypertension
D. Hypokalemia
Answer» C. Hypertension
35.

Raised platelet count may be found in -

A. Postoperative period
B. Acute haemorrhage
C. Splenectomized patients
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
36.

Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of -

A. Variceal sclerotherapy
B. Coronary artery bypass
C. Peritoneal dialysis
D. Radiation
Answer» D. Radiation
37.

Best position to reveal small pleural effusions on chest X-ray -

A. AP view
B. PA view
C. Lateral view
D. Lateral decubitus view
Answer» E.
38.

All the following statements are true of atypical mycobacterial infection EXCEPT

A. Though uncommon, there has been a recent increase
B. More common in immunocompromised host
C. In-vitro resistance to ATT is not known
D. Dissemination is a problem in AIDS
Answer» D. Dissemination is a problem in AIDS
39.

Bilateral LMN facial palsy is seen in all except -

A. Sarcoidosis
B. GB syndrome
C. Bilateral acoustic neuroma
D. Transverse myelitis
Answer» E.
40.

All are used for treating SIADH except -

A. Hypertonic saline
B. Furusemide
C. Desmopressin spray
D. Salt restriction
Answer» D. Salt restriction
41.

Atherosclerosis is inversely proportional to -

A. LDL level
B. VLDL level
C. Chylomicron level
D. HDL level
Answer» E.
42.

A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3meq/l. Ksupplementation requires is?

A. 80 meq over 24 hrs
B. 120-160meq over 24 hrs
C. 40meq over 24 hrs
D. 60meq over 24 hrs
Answer» D. 60meq over 24 hrs
43.

Endotoxic shock is characterized by the following EXCEPT -

A. Tachycardia
B. Fever
C. Hypotension
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Answer» E.
44.

Most diagnostic test for Z-E syndrome is -

A. Secretin test
B. Standard test meal
C. ACTH infusion
D. Ca infusion
Answer» B. Standard test meal
45.

Most effective treatment in DKA is ?

A. Insulin
B. IV fluid
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. KCI
Answer» B. IV fluid
46.

Atrial fibrillation is seen in all except -

A. Constructive pericarditis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Myocardial infarction
Answer» B. Atrial septal defect
47.

Specific test for gout is -

A. Raised serum uric acid level
B. Raised uric acid in synovial fluid and joint
C. Raised urea level
D. Raised urease enzyme level
Answer» C. Raised urea level
48.

The following is a predisposing factor for oesophageal carcinoma except -

A. Plummer Vision syndrome
B. Tylosis palmaris
C. Chronic achalasis
D. Benzene therapy
Answer» E.
49.

All are seen in multiple myeloma except -

A. Visual disturbance
B. Bleeding tendency
C. Proteinuria
D. Dystrophic calcification
Answer» E.
50.

True in B12 deficiency are A/E -

A. Posterior column involvement
B. Affectionate young age
C. Lower estremity involvement earlier and most severe
D. Bladder involvement in advancing age
Answer» C. Lower estremity involvement earlier and most severe