Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) does not audit the receipts and expenditure of

A. Municipal Undertakings
B. State Governments
C. Government Companies
D. Union Government
Answer» B. State Governments
2.

Who among the following is/are not appointed by a State Governor?

A. Chief Minister
B. Members of the State Public Service Commission
C. High Court Judges
D. Advocate General
Answer» D. Advocate General
3.

While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period [CDS 2012]

A. not exceeding three months
B. not exceeding nine months
C. of one year at a time
D. of two years at time
Answer» D. of two years at time
4.

Part V of the Constitution deals with: I. Union Executive II. Parliament III. Supreme Court and High Courts IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I only
D. I, II and IV
Answer» E.
5.

The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be

A. statutory (i.e. as laid down by Parliament by law)
B. fixed by the President of India
C. finalised by the Finance Minister
D. fixed by the Governor, Reserve Bank of India
Answer» B. fixed by the President of India
6.

The term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
Answer» D. 7 years
7.

Under the Cabinet Government the right to reshuffle the cabinet rests with the

A. Head of the State
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker
D. Cabinet sub-Committee
Answer» C. Speaker
8.

The Indian National Congress accepted the Cabinet Mission's proposal for

A. a Constitution-making body
B. interim Government
C. formation of a Union of India
D. formation of Provincial Governments
Answer» B. interim Government
9.

During the temporary absence of a Governor the _____ is appointed to officiate as Governor.

A. Chief Sectetary
B. Speaker of the State Assembly
C. Chairman of the State Legislative Council
D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
Answer» E.
10.

Which one of the following pairs of High Courts and their seats is not matched correctly?

A. Karnataka - Bengaluru
B. Madhya Pradesh - Bhopal
C. Rajasthan - Jodhpur
D. Kerala Ernakulam
Answer» C. Rajasthan - Jodhpur
11.

Both the Houses of Parliament as well as of a State Legislature have _____ privileges under our Constitution.

A. similar
B. dissimilar
C. divergent
D. peculiar
Answer» B. dissimilar
12.

With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct? [CDS 2012]

A. A money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
B. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill
C. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
D. The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants
Answer» D. The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants
13.

Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? [NDA 2008]

A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 73rd
D. 86th
Answer» D. 86th
14.

Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? [Asstt Grade 1992]

A. Parliament
B. State Legislatures
C. President
D. Attorney General
Answer» B. State Legislatures
15.

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from [CSAT 2011]

A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. The Union Finance Minister
Answer» C. The Prime Minister of India
16.

The Union or India consists of _____ States and Union Territories.

A. 22 : 8
B. 24 : 7
C. 28 : 7
D. 21 : 8
Answer» D. 21 : 8
17.

Which of the .following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review of the Supreme Court and the High Courts?

A. 24th
B. 26th
C. 42th
D. 44th
Answer» D. 44th
18.

The three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India was proposed by the

A. Balwarrt Rai Mehta Committee
B. Ashok Mehta committee
C. Royal commission
D. None of these
Answer» B. Ashok Mehta committee
19.

Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in

A. Rajasthan
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
Answer» B. Tamil Nadu
20.

The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on

A. local taxes
B. government finances
C. property taxes
D. special taxes
Answer» C. property taxes
21.

When the Governor or a State dies in office, who takes over as acting Governor?

A. Chief Minister of the State
B. Chief Justice of the State High Court
C. Anyone designated by the President
D. Governor of a neighbouring State
Answer» C. Anyone designated by the President
22.

When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his functions until a new Governor is appointed? [Asstt Grade 1992]

A. Secretary General of the Governor
B. A person designated by State Cabinet
C. Chief Justice of the High Court
D. Advocate General of the State
Answer» D. Advocate General of the State
23.

Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?

A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 22
D. Article 27
Answer» C. Article 22
24.

To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are debarred from practising law:

A. in any court other than the Supreme Court
B. in any court of India
C. in any court other than State High Courts
D. in any Criminal Court
Answer» C. in any court other than State High Courts
25.

Supreme court judges hold office until they complete the age of

A. 60
B. 62
C. 58
D. 65
Answer» E.
26.

Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian subcontinent is: [CDS 1993]

A. Bengali
B. Tamil
C. Telugu
D. Marathi
Answer» B. Tamil
27.

An ordinance issued by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament

A. True
B. False
C. True, only during a National Emergency
D. True, only during a Financial Emergency
Answer» B. False
28.

Ordinances issued by a State Governor are subject to the approval of the

A. President of India
B. Chief Minister of the State
C. Union Parliament
D. State Legislature concerned
Answer» E.
29.

The main purpose behind the inclusion of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to

A. establish a welfare state
B. establish a secular state
C. check the arbitrary actions of the Government
D. provide the best opportunities for development of the citizen
Answer» B. establish a secular state
30.

The main thrust of the Directive Principles of State Policy is

A. creation of an egalitarian society
B. achieving the goal of a 'welfare state'
C. ensuring national integration
D. striking a balance between equality and liberty
Answer» C. ensuring national integration
31.

Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the Centre and the States?

A. Articles 268 to 281
B. Articles 278 to 291
C. Articles 289 to 295
D. Articles 168 to 171
Answer» B. Articles 278 to 291
32.

The net proceeds of taxes are distributed between the Centre and the States on the recommendations of the

A. Finance Commission
B. CAG
C. Union Finance Ministry
D. Planning Commission
Answer» B. CAG
33.

For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court may issue a/an: [Stenographers' Exam 1992]

A. decree
B. ordinance
C. notification
D. writ
Answer» E.
34.

Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right? [CDS 1993]

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Certiorari
Answer» B. Mandamus
35.

Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? [BPSC 2011]

A. Right to Information
B. Right to Work
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Housing
Answer» D. Right to Housing
36.

In which case did the Supreme Court strike down certain provisions of the 42nd Amendment and restored primacy of fundamental rights over the Directive Principles?

A. AK Gopalan Case
B. Golaknath Case
C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
D. Minerva Mills Case
Answer» E.
37.

Grants-in-aid are provided every year to such States as are in need of assistanceas determined by the:

A. President
B. Parliament
C. Finance Commission
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
38.

Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental' ? I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens. II. They are superior to ordinary law III. They are fundamental for governing the country. IV. They are not absolute.

A. II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. III and IV
Answer» D. III and IV
39.

Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a person?

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto
Answer» B. Mandamus
40.

A person, who is not a Member of Parliament, if appointed a minister, shall become a Member of either House of Parliament within

A. 6 months
B. 2 months
C. 9 months
D. 1 year
Answer» B. 2 months
41.

Grants-in-aid are provided to such States as are in need of assistance, by the

A. Union Parliament
B. President
C. Finance Commission
D. Planning Commission
Answer» B. President
42.

In which of the following States, no tribe has been declared as 'Scheduled' by the President? [IFS 1993]

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Haryana
D. Bihar
Answer» D. Bihar
43.

Grants-in-aid are provided to such states as are in need of assistance by the

A. Union Parliament
B. President
C. Finance Commission
D. RBI
Answer» B. President
44.

Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? [IAS 2008] 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» C. Both 1 and 2
45.

The candidate for Vice-Presidential election must possess the qualifications prescribed for the Presidential candidate except that ne must be :

A. a citizen of India
B. over 35 years of age
C. holding no office of profit under the Government
D. qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha
Answer» E.
46.

The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the: [IAS 1993]

A. Hindu Code Bill
B. PEPSU Appropriation Bill
C. Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
D. Dowry Prohibition Bill
Answer» D. Dowry Prohibition Bill
47.

Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ? I. Cultural and Educational Rights. II. Right to Freedom of religion. III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. IV. Right to personal liberty.

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» D. I, II, III and IV
48.

Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is the final authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due to defection?

A. Speaker
B. President
C. Election Commission
D. High Court
Answer» B. President
49.

The President can remove the Chief Election Commissioner from office on

A. his own suo moto
B. the advice of the Prime Minister
C. the advice of Parliament
D. the advice of the Supreme Court
Answer» D. the advice of the Supreme Court
50.

With reference to the Presidential election in India, consider the following statements: 1. The nomination paper of a candidate for the Presidential election should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as seconders. 2. The prescribed security deposit in the Presidential election is Rs.25,000. Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS 2004]

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» B. 2 only