Explore topic-wise MCQs in Chemical Engineering.

This section includes 5314 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Chemical Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1301.

____ algorithm was used by Clipper Chip Key – Escrow cryptography technique for transmission of information.

A. Baton
B. Havequick
C. Saville
D. Skipjack
Answer» E.
1302.

Clipper Chip Key – Escrow involves using ____ for security.

A. one way key
B. two way key
C. four way key
D. eight way key
Answer» C. four way key
1303.

Which of the following is not a data format extension?

A. Boolean
B. Floating
C. Fix
D. Double
Answer» B. Floating
1304.

____ enables context switching.

A. Push/Pop of register stack
B. ALU
C. Bus
D. Memory
Answer» B. ALU
1305.

Which of the following addressing modes contain operand in the instruction?

A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Register
D. Immediate
Answer» E.
1306.

Early DSP devices contained ____ extension and ____ extension.

A. addressing, pipelining
B. instruction, data format
C. addressing, data format
D. instruction, pipeling
Answer» C. addressing, data format
1307.

CORBA IDL is suitable for translating application layer request into a soft radio interface layer request.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1308.

Which of the following is not a layer in the soft radio model proposed by Srikanteswara?

A. Application layer
B. Configuration layer
C. Processing layer
D. Tunneling layer
Answer» E.
1309.

Which of the following exhibits low efficiency when implemented using FPGA?

A. FFT algorithm
B. Database algorithm
C. Convolution algorithm
D. FEC algorithm
Answer» C. Convolution algorithm
1310.

A state transition maps the relation between ____and ____ to compute the _____

A. present state, input, output
B. present output, input, feedback
C. input, feedback, output
D. present state, output, feedback
Answer» B. present output, input, feedback
1311.

FPGA’s are designed specifically for fast implementation of ____a) state machinesb) state flowc) state machines and state flowd) state machines and sequential logic 2.State machines consist of ____ that represents the number of states.

A. state machinesb) state flowc) state machines and state flowd) state machines and sequential logic 2.State machines consist of ____ that represents the number of states.a) a memory
B. state flowc) state machines and state flowd) state machines and sequential logic 2.State machines consist of ____ that represents the number of states.a) a memoryb) states
C. state machines and state flowd) state machines and sequential logic 2.State machines consist of ____ that represents the number of states.a) a memoryb) statesc) clock
D. state machines and sequential logic 2.State machines consist of ____ that represents the number of states.a) a memoryb) statesc) clockd) control signalView Answer
Answer» E.
1312.

What is minimum cement content for concrete permanently under sea water to avoid the corrosion of reinforcement?

A. 5 kN/m3
B. 5 N/m3
C. 3 kN/m3
D. 3 N/m3
Answer» D. 3 N/m3
1313.

It is found that the _______ water does not lead to corrosion of reinforcement, provided the concrete is dense and there is enough cover to the reinforcement.

A. Sewage
B. Fresh
C. River
D. Sea
Answer» E.
1314.

The ________ water tends to develop dampness and inflorescence of the concrete structures.

A. Lake
B. Mineral
C. Sea
D. River
Answer» D. River
1315.

The term ________ is define as an act or process of gradual wearing away of a metal due to chemical or electro chemical reaction by its surrounding such that the metal is converted into an oxide, salt or some other compound.

A. Precipitation
B. Dissolution
C. Erosion
D. Corrosion
Answer» E.
1316.

Which of the following is not a feature of cross-section elements of a highway?

A. Shoulders
B. Side slopes
C. Curbs
D. Signal
Answer» E.
1317.

Broken-back grade lines should be provided where ever practicable.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
1318.

The sight distance in a sag vertical curve is limited by which factor given below during night time driving condition?

A. Design speed
B. Driver’s height
C. Headlamp range
D. Ruling speed
Answer» D. Ruling speed
1319.

What is the mid-ordinate of a curve with a radius of curvature 2m and angle of deflection = 60°?

A. 0.342
B. 0.268
C. 0.112
D. 0.245
Answer» C. 0.112
1320.

What are the two types of vertical curves?

A. Crest and sag
B. Crest and plume
C. Sag and sink
D. Sink and fall
Answer» B. Crest and plume
1321.

The distance from the centreline of the inside lane to the nearest roadside sight blockage is called.

A. Length of curve
B. Apex
C. Mid-ordinate
D. Tangent
Answer» D. Tangent
1322.

Which one of the following is not an advantage of spiral transition?

A. Easy path for drivers to follow
B. Aesthetics
C. Agreeable arrangement of superelevation runoff
D. Less delay
Answer» E.
1323.

Length of the transition curve is the maximum of length due to _____

A. centrifugal force, superelevation, and empirical
B. centrifugal force, superelevation, and tangent
C. superelevation, centripetal, and empirical
D. superelevation, centripetal, and design speed
Answer» B. centrifugal force, superelevation, and tangent
1324.

In how many stages does the transition from a tangent section to super-elevated horizontal curve takes place?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» C. 4
1325.

The value of side-friction factor varies with ______

A. design speed
B. superelevation
C. skidding
D. overturning
Answer» B. superelevation
1326.

What is the maximum superelevation in snowy areas?

A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 3%
D. 8%
Answer» E.
1327.

What is the maximum side slope of cut and fill section where sandy soil is predominant?

A. 1:2
B. 3:1
C. 6:1
D. 10:1
Answer» D. 10:1
1328.

If the degree of curvature is higher then the curve is ______

A. sharper
B. flatter
C. vertical
D. elliptical
Answer» B. flatter
1329.

A Spiral transition curve has a varying radius.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1330.

What do you mean by the splitting point?

A. The two streams split with different composition
B. The two streams split with equal composition
C. Assuming it’s not a reactor and there’s only 2 streams
D. Assuming it’s not a reactor and there’s only 1 stream
Answer» C. Assuming it’s not a reactor and there’s only 2 streams
1331.

The fresh feed to an ammonia synthesis reactor contains nitrogen, hydrogen and 2.0 mole per cent inerts. The molar ratio of H2:N2 is 3:1. The product stream consists of pure ammonia. Since conversion in the reactor is only 15%, a recycle stream is used and in order to avoid build-up of inerts, a purge stream is withdrawn. The rate of purge stream is adjusted to keep inert concentration in the recycle stream at 8 mole per cent. For a fresh feed rate of 100 moles/hr. Note that recycle stream contains only nitrogen, hydrogen and inerts. The N2:H2 ratio of 1:3 is maintained in every process stream, and calculate the number of moles, moles of inerts and moles of hydrogen in the recycle stream?

A. 437 moles/hr, 35 moles/hr, 301.5 moles/hr
B. 237 moles/hr, 30 moles/hr, 200 moles/hr
C. 567 moles/hr, 35 moles/hr, 205 moles/hr
D. 347 moles/hr, 30 moles/hr, 500 moles/hr
Answer» B. 237 moles/hr, 30 moles/hr, 200 moles/hr
1332.

The fresh feed to an ammonia synthesis reactor contains nitrogen, hydrogen and 2.0 mole per cent inerts. The molar ratio of H2:N2 is 3:1. The product stream consists of pure ammonia. Since conversion in the reactor is only 15%, a recycle stream is used and in order to avoid build-up of inerts, a purge stream is withdrawn. The rate of purge stream is adjusted to keep inert concentration in the recycle stream at 8 mole per cent. For a fresh feed rate of 100 moles/hr. Note that recycle stream contains only nitrogen, hydrogen and inerts. The N2:H2 ratio of 1:3 is maintained in every process stream, and calculate the moles of nitrogen entering the reactor and in the recycle stream?

A. 125 moles/hr, 100.50 moles
B. 135 moles/hr, 50 moles
C. 125 moles/hr, 50 moles
D. 185 moles/hr, 100.50 moles
Answer» B. 135 moles/hr, 50 moles
1333.

A solution of potassium dichromate in water contains 15% w/w Kr2Cr2O7. Calculate the amount of Kr2Cr2O7 that can be produced from 1500 kg of solution if 700 kg of water is evaporated and remaining solution is cooled to 293K.Data: Solubility of Kr2Cr2O7 at 293 K is 115 kg per 1000 kg of water.

A. 158.875 kg
B. 156.678 kg
C. 145.478 kg
D. 148.875 kg
Answer» B. 156.678 kg
1334.

A single effect evaporator is fed with 10000 kg / h of weak liquor containing 15 % caustic by weight and is concentrated to get thick liquor containing 40 % by weight caustic. Calculate:(i) kg / h of water evaporated and(ii) kg / h of thick liquor

A. 4560 kg/h, 3720 kg/h
B. 3460 kg/h, 7680 kg/h
C. 4350 kg/h, 6732 kg/h
D. 6250 kg/h, 3750 kg/h
Answer» E.
1335.

Consider the following labeled flowchart for a simple chemical process based on reaction A -> B and predict the overall and single-pass conversion of the process?

A. 100%, 70%
B. 100%, 50%
C. 100%, 75%
D. 100%, 55%
Answer» D. 100%, 55%
1336.

Which of the following represents the figure corresponding to the stream?

A. Recycle system
B. By-pass system
C. Purge system
D. Recover stream
Answer» C. Purge system
1337.

Of the following values, between which values traverse speed will range?

A. 0.1 to 5 m/min
B. 5 to 100 m/min
C. 100 to 500 m/min
D. 500 to 1000 m/min
Answer» C. 100 to 500 m/min
1338.

Impact angle in Abrasive water jet machining range between which of the following values?

A. 0&#176 to 10&#176
B. 10&#176 to 30&#176
C. 30&#176 to 90&#176
D. 90&#176 to 100&#176
Answer» D. 90&#176 to 100&#176
1339.

What is the value of stand-off distance in Abrasive water jet machining?

A. 1.0 – 2.0 mm
B. 2.0 – 4.0 mm
C. 4.0 – 6.0 mm
D. 6.0 – 10.0 mm
Answer» B. 2.0 – 4.0 mm
1340.

State whether the following statement is true or false about Abrasive water jet machining.“A material, whose material removal rate is higher, produces larger surface roughness.”

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1341.

Which of the following is not a process parameter of Abrasive water jet machining?

A. Frequency of vibration
B. Orifice diameter
C. Pressure
D. Stand-off distance
Answer» B. Orifice diameter
1342.

A vector can always have_____________

A. Only one component along any of the axis
B. Only two components along any of the axis
C. Only three components along any of the axis
D. A unit vector along the direction perpendicular to its direction
Answer» D. A unit vector along the direction perpendicular to its direction
1343.

Which is true for the vector provided the only position coordinates given?

A. (Final position coordinates + initial positions coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
B. (Final position coordinates – initial positions coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
C. (Initial positions coordinates – Final position coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
D. (Initial positions coordinates + Final position coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
Answer» C. (Initial positions coordinates – Final position coordinates) gives the vector form of the vector
1344.

Three vectors emerging from a point are always in a single plane.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
1345.

Two vectors emerging from a point are always in a single plane.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
1346.

The value cos-1(-3/7) + cos-1(2/7) + cos-1(6/7) is ____________

A. 215.4˚
B. 273.4˚
C. 188.4˚
D. 219.4˚
Answer» E.
1347.

A force vector is along 4i – 4k direction and has a magnitude 100N and another force vector is along 4i +2j -4k and has a magnitude of 120N. What is the resultant of both forces?

A. 80i + 40j – 80k N
B. 80i – 40j – 80k N
C. 151i + 40j – 80k N
D. 151i+ 40j – 151k N
Answer» E.
1348.

What is the magnitude of the vector, 12i – 8j – 24k?

A. 18
B. 28
C. 38
D. 48
Answer» C. 38
1349.

In the figure given below, calculate the value of cosγ. (γ is the angle made by the resultant vector and the z-axis)

A. 0.866
B. -0.354
C. 0.540
D. 0.354View Answer
Answer» B. -0.354
1350.

In the figure given below, with F1 = 60j + 80k and F2= 50i -100j + 100k, what is the value of β? (β is the angle made by the resultant vector with the y-axis )

A. 76˚
B. 102˚
C. 19˚
D. 130˚
Answer» C. 19˚