Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Depending upon the flow of current from the output of one logic circuit to the input of another the logic families can be divides into _________ categories.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer» B. 3
2.

The maximum noise voltage that may appear at the input of a logic gate without changing the logical state of its output is termed as __________

A. Noise Margin
B. Noise Immunity
C. White Noise
D. Signal to Noise Ratio
Answer» C. White Noise
3.

Fan-in is defined as __________

A. the number of outputs connected to gate without any degradation in the voltage levels
B. the number of inputs connected to gate without any degradation in the voltage levels
C. the number of outputs connected to gate with degradation in the voltage levels
D. the number of inputs connected to gate with degradation in the voltage levels
Answer» C. the number of outputs connected to gate with degradation in the voltage levels
4.

Power Dissipation in DIC is expressed in __________

A. Watts or kilowatts
B. Milliwatts or nanowatts
C. DB
D. Mdb
Answer» C. DB
5.

The delay times are measured between the __________ % voltage levels of the input and output waveforms.

A. 50
B. 75
C. 25
D. 100
Answer» B. 75
6.

Propagation delay times can be divided as __________

A. t(PLH) and t(LPH)
B. t(LPH) and t(PHL)
C. t(PLH) and t(PHL)
D. t(HPL) and t(LPH)
Answer» D. t(HPL) and t(LPH)
7.

Propagation delay is defined as __________

A. the time taken for the output of a gate to change after the inputs have changed
B. the time taken for the input of a gate to change after the outputs have changed
C. the time taken for the input of a gate to change after the intermediates have changed
D. the time taken for the output of a gate to change after the intermediates have changed
Answer» B. the time taken for the input of a gate to change after the outputs have changed
8.

CMOS refers to __________

A. Continuous Metal Oxide Semiconductor
B. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
C. Centred Metal Oxide Semiconductor
D. Concrete Metal Oxide Semiconductor
Answer» C. Centred Metal Oxide Semiconductor
9.

MOS families includes __________

A. PMOS and NMOS
B. CMOS and NMOS
C. PMOS, NMOS and CMOS
D. EMOS, NMOS and PMOS
Answer» D. EMOS, NMOS and PMOS
10.

Elastomers have excellent adhesion to concrete and are not susceptible to ____________

A. Hardening
B. Shaving
C. Collapsing
D. Softening
Answer» E.
11.

Before patching the exposure strands should be coated with ____________

A. Thick cement grout
B. Slurry cement grout
C. Hardened cement grout
D. Watery cement grout
Answer» C. Hardened cement grout
12.

The repair procedure in severe damage includes ____________

A. Grouting
B. Collapse
C. Shortcrete
D. Mud
Answer» D. Mud
13.

The tensile shear strength of the adhesive is initially proportional to the square root of ____________

A. Span
B. Thickness
C. Area
D. Eccentricity
Answer» C. Area
14.

The pretreatment of concrete surface is generally carried out by ____________

A. Sand blasting
B. Forrowing
C. Bleeding
D. Blasting
Answer» B. Forrowing
15.

In Switzerland the externally bonded steel plates were used for ____________

A. Bridges
B. Crops
C. Dams
D. Tanks
Answer» B. Crops
16.

The load bearing capacity of a structural element can be increased by changing ____________

A. Foundation
B. Design
C. Span
D. Loads
Answer» D. Loads
17.

The first attempt to strengthen concrete flexural elements by externally bonded steel plates was attempted in?

A. Germany
B. France
C. America
D. Russia
Answer» C. America
18.

The restoration of structures by rectifying constructional deficiencies are as a result of ____________

A. Cross section
B. Span
C. Dimensioning
D. Slab
Answer» D. Slab
19.

Emulsion or droplet PCR is another modification of PCR. Which of the statement holds true?

A. It is possible to incorporate the reagents in a lipid drop
B. It refers to the PCR carried out at large scale
C. The temperature variation is not possible easily
D. If there is a single template molecule at the start then amplification results in the mixture and it because of the extent of extension carried out
Answer» B. It refers to the PCR carried out at large scale
20.

Which of the statement is incorrect for anchored PCR?

A. Anchored PCR is the modification in which only one piece of the sequence is known and thus one primer
B. The known sequence is attached to the required region of amplification and then further used as a second priming site
C. Fragment the sample DNA and ligate it to known sequence
D. Tails are added enzymatically to the region of known sequence
Answer» E.
21.

If amplification of one of the strand is favoured, the modification of PCR is known as __________

A. single-strand PCR
B. partial PCR
C. asymmetric PCR
D. anchored PCR
Answer» D. anchored PCR
22.

Mutation is never deliberately induced in PCR products.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
23.

By using two oligonucleotides, we can measure the amount of quantity of DNA by measuring the amount of fluorescence. The first probe absorbs light and the second emits it at a particular wavelength.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
24.

Which one of the following is not done if amplification of the non flanking region is carried out?

A. Firstly, restriction enzyme digestion is done of those sites whose sequence is not known
B. Then the self-ligation of molecules is allowed
C. Now the molecules are cleaved where the known sequence is
D. Again, the molecules are linearized and the known sequence is in the middle
Answer» E.
25.

Ring gates retain slag.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
26.

Which of the following gates is not favourble for non ferrous castings?

A. Top gate
B. Bottom gate
C. Parting gate
D. Middle gate
Answer» B. Bottom gate
27.

Which of the following gate is also called as ‘drop gate’?

A. Top gate
B. Bottom gate
C. Parting gate
D. Middle gate
Answer» B. Bottom gate
28.

For the functioning of the gating system, which of the following factors need not be controlled?

A. Type of sprue
B. Size of runner
C. Temperature of molten metal
D. Type of riser
Answer» E.
29.

Which structures are best suited to resist earthquake shocks without danger?

A. Earthen dams
B. Concrete gravity dams
C. Timber dam
D. Both earthen and concrete gravity dams
Answer» E.
30.

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the selection of dam site?

A. For economy, the length of the dam should be as small as possible
B. For a given height, it should store the maximum volume of water
C. The river valley at the dam site should be narrow but should open out upstream to provide a large basin for a reservoir
D. The general bed level at the dam site should preferably be lower than that of the river basin
Answer» E.
31.

Arch dams are constructed in _____________

A. wide valleys with flat side slopes
B. narrow valley with weak abutments
C. moderate valleys with strong abutments
D. narrow valleys with strong abutments
Answer» E.
32.

For any width of the valley with any foundation and low height of water to be stored, the best-suited dam is _____________

A. steel dam
B. buttress dam
C. timber dam
D. solid gravity dam
Answer» D. solid gravity dam
33.

Which dam is a better choice when the raw materials are not available and have to be transported from far off distances?

A. Earthen dam
B. Rock-fill dam
C. Concrete gravity dam
D. Hollow concrete dam
Answer» E.
34.

Which foundation is not fit for concrete gravity dam or for rock-fill dams?

A. Solid rock foundation
B. Gravel foundation
C. Silt and fine sand foundation
D. Clay foundation
Answer» E.
35.

Which foundation suggests the adoption of an earth dam or very low gravity dam?

A. Solid rock foundation
B. Gravel foundation
C. Silt and fine sand foundation
D. Clay foundation
Answer» D. Clay foundation
36.

Which of the following foundations are suitable for earthen and rock-fill dams?

A. Solid rock foundation
B. Gravel foundation
C. Silt and fine sand foundation
D. Clay foundation
Answer» C. Silt and fine sand foundation
37.

A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _________________

A. concrete overflow dam
B. spillway
C. arch dam
D. earth dam
Answer» D. earth dam
38.

Topography dictates the first choice of the type of dam. A narrow U-shaped valley would suggest a ________________________

A. concrete overflow dam
B. spillway
C. arch dam
D. earth dam
Answer» B. spillway
39.

If E=255 and M≠0, then which of the following statement is true about X?

A. Not a number
B. Infinity
C. Defined
D. Zero
Answer» B. Infinity
40.

The binary digit b-A is called as ______________

A. LSB
B. Total value
C. MSB
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
41.

What is the 2’s complement of (1100)2?

A. (0100)2
B. (0011)2
C. (0111)2
D. (1100)2
Answer» B. (0011)2
42.

What is the binary equivalent of (-3/8)?

A. (10011)2
B. (0011)2
C. (1100)2
D. (1101)2
Answer» E.
43.

The investigations revealed that the bearings were not at ____________

A. 60 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 20 degrees
Answer» B. 30 degrees
44.

The suspended span comprises of how many prestressed concrete girders?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 6
D. 1
Answer» C. 6
45.

The Chambal bridge is on a state highway connecting which states?

A. Karnataka and Kerala
B. Delhi and Hyderabad
C. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
D. West Bengal and Assam
Answer» D. West Bengal and Assam
46.

The restoration of the end block of the girder can be done completely dismantling the ____________

A. Concrete
B. Cement
C. Water
D. Aggregates
Answer» B. Cement
47.

The super structure of Katepura bridge in Maharashtra state comprises of ____________

A. Cantilever beam
B. SSB
C. Point
D. Simple beam
Answer» C. Point
48.

The deck in Quinton bridge in U.K is made of ____________

A. Voided slabs
B. Concrete slabs
C. Prestressed slabs
D. Elongated slabs
Answer» B. Concrete slabs
49.

The super structure of Obra singrauli bridge, located on eastern railway in Indian is of span ____________

A. 14.3
B. 18.3m
C. 16.3m
D. 12.3m
Answer» C. 16.3m
50.

The concrete deck slab and girders of Gizener bridge, Switzerland was built in the year?

A. 1911
B. 1920
C. 1915
D. 1900
Answer» B. 1920