Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

What is the distance between antennas to apply the Friss transmission equation in terms of antennas largest dimension?

A. R » 2D2/λ
B. R « 2D2/λ
C. R » 2λ2/D
D. R « 2λ2/D
Answer» B. R « 2D2/λ
2.

Friss transmission is applicable when same antenna is used for both transmission and reception.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
3.

Which chemical is used for extracting enzymes by osmotic shock treatment?

A. EDTA
B. NaoH
C. SDS
D. 1.4% buffered sucrose
Answer» E.
4.

The phenomenon wherein the osmotic pressure created due to presence of solutes inside and outside the cells will be equal is referred to as ________

A. isotonic condition
B. hypertonic condition
C. hypotonic condition
D. osmotic shock
Answer» B. hypertonic condition
5.

Pick odd one out.

A. Triton-X-100
B. Cetyl triethyl ammonium bromide
C. Sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS)
D. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
Answer» B. Cetyl triethyl ammonium bromide
6.

Which one of the following is not an example for ionic-detergent?

A. Sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS)
B. Tween
C. Sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS)
D. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
Answer» C. Sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS)
7.

___________ is a divalent chelator which can be used to extract enzymes from different sources.

A. Sucrose
B. NaOH
C. Lysozyme
D. EDTA
Answer» E.
8.

The enzyme which specifically catalyzes β (1 → 4) glycosidic linkages of NAM (N-acetyl muramic acid) and NAG (N-acetyl glucosamine) present in bacterial peptidoglycan is _______________

A. protease
B. lipase
C. lysozyme
D. and NAG (N-acetyl glucosamin
E. present in bacterial peptidoglycan is _______________a) proteaseb) lipasec) lysozymed) cellulase
Answer» D. and NAG (N-acetyl glucosamin
9.

Alkali treatment is not advisable for which of the following?

A. Extracellular enzymes
B. Bacterial enzymes in cell wall
C. Enzymes in cell wall of plant sources
D. Membrane bound enzymes in eukaryotic cell
Answer» B. Bacterial enzymes in cell wall
10.

Extraction of enzymes by physical methods include the usage of alkalis, EDTA, lysozyme, etc.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
11.

What is the flame temperature of hydrogen?

A. 2000°C
B. 1200°C
C. 2700°C
D. 3300°C
Answer» D. 3300°C
12.

What is the flame temperature of acetylene?

A. 1700°C
B. 2200°C
C. 2800°C
D. 3200°C
Answer» E.
13.

Oxidizing flame has equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene supply.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
14.

What is the flame temperature of water gas?

A. 2500°C
B. 2800°C
C. 2300°C
D. 3100°C
Answer» D. 3100°C
15.

Oxy-acetylene process is most suited for which of the following process of joining?

A. Metal wires
B. Metal sheets
C. Metal tubes
D. Metal bars
Answer» C. Metal tubes
16.

The method of the images is applied to find the __________________

A. calculation of capacitance
B. calculation of inductance
C. calculation of resistance
D. calculation of effect of the earth on capacitance
Answer» E.
17.

If we account for the effect of the presence of the capacitance of the transmission line, then the capacitance ___________

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. increases hyperbolically
Answer» B. decreases
18.

The intrinsic impedance of free space is given by

A. 272 ohm
B. 412 ohm
C. 740 ohm
D. 377 ohm
Answer» E.
19.

If the intrinsic angle is 20, then find the loss tangent.

A. tan 20
B. tan 40
C. tan 60
D. tan 80
Answer» C. tan 60
20.

Find the conductivity of a material with conduction current density 100 units and electric field of 4 units.

A. 25
B. 400
C. 0.04
D. 1600
Answer» B. 400
21.

What is the dynamic range of a 12 bit converter?

A. 81.5dB
B. 72.24dB
C. 62.35dB
D. 10.254dB
Answer» C. 62.35dB
22.

Find the resolution of an ADC which uses 14 bit numbers and have a voltage range of -6V to +6V?

A. 845.65μV
B. 3.56μV
C. 0.00154μV
D. 732.5μV
Answer» E.
23.

Which of the following is the fastest type of ADC?

A. Successive approximation conversion
B. Flash conversion
C. Delta encoded conversion
D. Pipelined conversion
Answer» C. Delta encoded conversion
24.

During the sample mode the sample and hold circuit passes the analog signal unchanged.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
25.

Which of the following is not an advantage of undersampling?

A. Slower ADC
B. Less power
C. Fast microprocessors
D. Low memory capacity
Answer» D. Low memory capacity
26.

Vapour compression refrigeration system is less complex than absorber refrigeration system.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
27.

In absorber refrigeration, the solution of working fluid (ammonia) is pumped to a low pressure with a big pump.

A. is pumped to a low pressure with a big pump.a) True
B. False
Answer» C.
28.

How is pressurization achieved in absorber refrigeration?

A. By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the absorber section
B. By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
C. By evaporating refrigerant from absorbent in the absorber section
D. By evaporating refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
Answer» B. By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
29.

Absorption refrigeration uses _______ mechanical power input as compared to vapour compression refrigeration.

A. greater
B. the same
C. the same working fluid as
D. negligible
Answer» E.
30.

Efficiency of solar collector decreases with ______

A. decrease in temperature of heat exchanger
B. increase in temperature of sun
C. increase in temperature
D. the amount of cold air given to the system
Answer» D. the amount of cold air given to the system
31.

In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine cycle increases with _______

A. decrease in temperature of heat exchanger
B. increase in temperature of heat exchanger
C. the amount of heat supplied to the evaporator
D. the amount of cold air released from the system
Answer» C. the amount of heat supplied to the evaporator
32.

What is coefficient of performance?

A. Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input solar energy
B. Ratio of input solar energy to refrigeration capacity
C. Product of input solar energy and refrigeration capacity
D. Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input electrical energy
Answer» B. Ratio of input solar energy to refrigeration capacity
33.

Which of the following is/are considered for calculating the overall efficiency of solar absorption refrigeration system?

A. Coefficient of performance of absorption system
B. Solar collection efficiency
C. Solar insolation
D. Solar collection efficiency and coefficient of performance of absorption system
Answer» E.
34.

Which of the following use absorption refrigeration system?

A. Heating systems
B. Solar cooker
C. Waste heat from cogeneration
D. Solar stills
Answer» D. Solar stills
35.

Which of the following best describes the process of vapour absorption refrigeration?

A. Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by heating → thus cooling → pumping into a high pressure cycle
B. Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → pumping into a high pressure cycle → producing vapours from solution by heating → thus cooling
C. Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → thus cooling → pumping into a high pressure cycle → producing vapours from solution by heating
D. Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by heating → thus cooling → pumping into a high pressure cycle
Answer» C. Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → thus cooling → pumping into a high pressure cycle → producing vapours from solution by heating
36.

Absorption of ammonia in a liquid solution analogous to _______

A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. vapourisation
D. convection
Answer» B. evaporation
37.

What is the working fluid in vapour absorption type systems?

A. Platinum
B. CFCs
C. Freons
D. Ammonia
Answer» E.
38.

What are the three heat exchangers used in an absorption type refrigeration?

A. Compressor, absorber and generator
B. Absorber, generator and adsorber
C. Absorber, regenerating intermediate heat exchanger and generator
D. Compressor, generator and adsorber
Answer» D. Compressor, generator and adsorber
39.

Which of the following types of solar energy can be used to source air conditioning systems?

A. Passive solar and wind
B. Passive solar and photovoltaics
C. Vapour compressor and photovoltaics
D. Wind and solar thermal energy
Answer» C. Vapour compressor and photovoltaics
40.

Solar air conditioning system uses _______ as its energy source.

A. sun
B. wind
C. electricity
D. motor
Answer» B. wind
41.

_______ is used to detect and correct the errors that may occur during data transfers.

A. ECC
B. CRC
C. Checksum
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» B. CRC
42.

_______ is used to deal with the difference in the transfer rates between the drive and the bus.

A. Data repeaters
B. Enhancers
C. Data buffers
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
43.

The disk drive is connected to the system by using the _____

A. PCI bus
B. SCSI bus
C. HDMI
D. ISA
Answer» C. HDMI
44.

The disk system consists of which of the following?i. Diskii. Disk driveiii. Disk controller

A. i and ii
B. i, ii and iii
C. ii and iii
D. i
Answer» C. ii and iii
45.

The logical ______ of the endpoint codes determines if the line is completely inside the window.

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. NOR
Answer» C. NOT
46.

If the logical AND of the endpoint codes is NOT zero, the line can be trivially accepted.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
47.

The 4-bit code of bottom-right region of the window is ____________

A. 1001
B. 0101
C. 1010
D. 0110
Answer» E.
48.

The 4-bit code of top-left region of the window is ____________

A. 1001
B. 1100
C. 0101
D. 1010
Answer» B. 1100
49.

The Cohen–Sutherland algorithm can be only be used on a rectangular clip window.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
50.

Cohen-Sutherland clipping is an example of _________________

A. polygon clipping
B. text clipping
C. line clipping
D. curve clipping
Answer» D. curve clipping