Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Clay lumps up to 2% are allowed in fine aggregates used for the pavement concrete.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
2.

The relationship between the strength gain, time and temperature of the concrete mix is called ______

A. Setting
B. Maturity
C. Creep
D. Curing
Answer» C. Creep
3.

______ admixture is used to help the pavement withstand the freezing and thawing cycle.

A. Retarders
B. Plasticisers
C. Accelerators
D. Air-entraining
Answer» E.
4.

Concrete should be placed and finished during the ______ stage.

A. Dormant
B. Cooling
C. Hydrating
D. Mixing
Answer» B. Cooling
5.

Which of the below methods is the best method to compute the modulus of elasticity?

A. Initial tangent modulus
B. Secant modulus
C. Tangent modulus
D. Initial secant modulus
Answer» C. Tangent modulus
6.

What will be the tensile strength of a concrete specimen of grade M30?

A. 3.83 N/mm2
B. 38.33 N/mm2
C. 0.38 N/mm2
D. 0.038 N/mm2
Answer» B. 38.33 N/mm2
7.

Non coherent receivers require more power than coherent receivers.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
8.

Effective isotropic radiated power is given by ____

A. product of input power to the antenna and gain of the antenna
B. sum of input power to the antenna and gain of the antenna
C. difference of input power to the antenna and gain of the antenna
D. ratio of product of input power to the antenna and gain of the antenna
Answer» B. sum of input power to the antenna and gain of the antenna
9.

Which among the following is a monitor parameter for power consumption?

A. Throughput
B. Modulation type
C. SINR
D. Interference
Answer» C. SINR
10.

In ____ approach, the ____ members are saved after each process or test.

A. multiple single objective Pareto sampling, dominant
B. repeated single objective, dominant
C. multiple single objective Pareto sampling, recessive
D. repeated single objective, recessive
Answer» C. multiple single objective Pareto sampling, recessive
11.

____ builds a matrix with ____ assigned to columns and ____ assigned to rows.

A. Multiple single objective Pareto sampling, elasticity, weights
B. Repeated single objective, elasticity, weights
C. Multiple single objective Pareto sampling, objectives, ranks
D. Repeated single objective, objectives, ranks
Answer» D. Repeated single objective, objectives, ranks
12.

Utility function is an example of ____

A. no preference method
B. a post priori method
C. interactive method
D. a priori method
Answer» E.
13.

____ defines the amount of change constituted by the substitution of one parameter by another parameter.

A. Rigidity
B. Elasticity
C. Replaceable
D. Replicable
Answer» C. Replaceable
14.

Cobb Douglas function is otherwise called ____

A. linear function
B. weighted sum function
C. logarithmic function
D. linear logarithmic function
Answer» E.
15.

The significance of weighted sum utility function approach is that the ____ can be determined.

A. optima at extreme edges
B. optima at centre
C. concavity at extreme edges
D. concavity at centre
Answer» B. optima at centre
16.

In multiobjective analysis, ____ function is used for selection.

A. subjective
B. single valued
C. utility
D. set
Answer» D. set
17.

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A. { If an bn | n = 0,1, 2, 3 ..} is regular language
B. Strings with equal number of a’s and b’s denies a regular language
C. L (A* B*)∩ B gives the set A
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
18.

Is an ordinary NFA and a NFA-ε are equivalent.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
19.

A nondeterministic finite automation with ε-moves is an extension of nondeterministic finite automation.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
20.

The transitions which does not take an input symbol are called ___________

A. ε-transitions
B. λ-transitions
C. ε-transitions & λ-transitions
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
21.

Which of the following CFG’s can’t be simulated by an FSM?

A. S->Sa/b
B. S->aSb/ab
C. S->abX, X->cY, Y->d/aX
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. S->abX, X->cY, Y->d/aX
22.

ε-transitions does not add any extra capacity of recognizing formal.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
23.

E(q) is known ε-closure of q.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
24.

NFA-εs are defined because certain properties can be more easily proved on them as compared to NFA.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
25.

”Thermal conversion (destruction) of organics in the absence of oxygen”, which term is used for this process?

A. Reduction
B. Pyrolysis
C. Combustion
D. Gasification
Answer» C. Combustion
26.

“Thermal conversion of organic matter with an oxidant (normally oxygen) to produce primarily carbon dioxide and water”, which term is used for this process?

A. Oxidation
B. Pyrolysis
C. Combustion
D. Gasification
Answer» D. Gasification
27.

Refer to Q6 and Q7 and calculate the dew point temperature of the products.

A. 45.8°C
B. 40.5°C
C. 30.5°C
D. 35.8°C
Answer» B. 40.5°C
28.

Refer to Q6 and calculate the percentage of carbon dioxide by volume in the products.

A. 7.0%
B. 6.0%
C. 7.4%
D. 6.4%
Answer» D. 6.4%
29.

In this problem Propane (C3H8) is burned with 61% excess air, which enters a combustion chamber at 25°C. Assuming complete combustion and a total pressure of 1 atm (101.32 kPa), determine the air-fuel ratio [kg-air/kg-fuel].

A. 26.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
B. 25.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
C. 25.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
D. 26.5 kg-air/kg-fuelView Answer
Answer» D. 26.5 kg-air/kg-fuelView Answer
30.

Refer to Q4, and calculate 50% excess air.

A. 22.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
B. 23.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
C. 20.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
D. 20.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
Answer» C. 20.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
31.

In this problem we wish to develop the combustion equation and determine the air-fuel ratio for the complete combustion of n-Butane (C4H10) with theoretical air.

A. 15.4 kg-air/kg-fuel
B. 12.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
C. 12.4 kg-air/kg-fuel
D. 15.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
Answer» E.
32.

Refer to Q2 and estimate that the synthesis gas obtained from a coal gasification process can be used for producing methanol, which is used as fuel in direct-methanol fuel cells. Determine the rate of production of methanol if the reaction shown below is releasing 21.6 kW of energy. CO(g) + 2H2(g) -> CH3OH(l) ΔHr° = -128.08 kJ/mol

A. 455.6 mol/hr
B. 457.2 mol/hr
C. 450.9 mol/hr
D. 454.5 mol/hrView Answer
Answer» C. 450.9 mol/hr
33.

A solid-oxide fuel cell is fed with carbon monoxide and reacts with air to produce CO2. This reaction will produce 2 electrons which are used to power an electric circuit external to the fuel cell. The reaction equation is shown below:2CO(g) + O2(g) -> 2CO2(g) ΔHr° = -565.96 kJ/molThis reaction does not occur for other types of fuel cells which use a catalyst, such as polymerelectrolyte membrane or phosphoric-acid fuel cells. The presence of carbon monoxide on the anode side of these types of fuel cells will cause catalyst poisoning, reducing the efficiency and voltage of the fuel cell.Determine the rate of enthalpy change for a carbon dioxide production rate of 208 mol/hr.The extent of the reaction occurring in the fuel cell can be obtained by the following equation:where:

A. -16.35 kW
B. -15.35 kW
C. -16.45 kW
D. -15.45 kW
Answer» B. -15.35 kW
34.

What is the process of making biomass energy?

A. Oxidation
B. Combustion
C. Reduction
D. Vaporization
Answer» C. Reduction
35.

Flash tubes used for Nd-YAG laser can be helical or flat.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
36.

Helium-Neon is a gas laser.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
37.

Lasers can be operated in _____ modes

A. 2
B. 7
C. 8
D. only one
Answer» B. 7
38.

When coming back to normal state from excited state, electron releases _____

A. proton
B. anti-proton
C. positron
D. photon
Answer» E.
39.

A sweep generator can be triggered by an external switch as well.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
40.

Sweep generator is triggered by __________

A. oscillator
B. flip-flop
C. transformer
D. channel A or B
Answer» E.
41.

Two voltages can be studied simultaneously by making use of __________

A. single electron gun
B. two electron guns
C. four electron guns
D. six electron guns
Answer» C. four electron guns
42.

Square wave generator doesn’t reproduce the signals on the screen.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
43.

Electronic switch is used in a dual trace oscilloscope.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
44.

Which device is needed for the reconstruction of signal?

A. Low pass filter
B. Equalizer
C. Low pass filter & Equalizer
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
45.

The signal can be reconstructed

A. At Nyquist rate
B. Above Nyquist rate
C. At & above the Nyquist rate
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
46.

Original signal came to be retraced from sampled version using

A. Low pass filtering
B. High pass filtering
C. Low & High pass filtering
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» B. High pass filtering
47.

Decreasing the data rate is called as

A. Aliasing
B. Down sampling
C. Up sampling
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» C. Up sampling
48.

Which filter does not have sharp output?

A. Linear phase filter
B. Delayed symmetric filter
C. Linear phase & Delayed symmetric filter
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned
49.

Check whether we get approximately 80% saturation if the total pressure and the partial pressure of the gas mixture is 760 mmHg and 260 mmHg. Also, the vapour pressure is 300 mmHg.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
50.

Temperature at which the partial pressure of the gas-vapour mixture equals vapour pressure _______

A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. None of the mentioned
Answer» D. None of the mentioned