Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Symbol manipulation in LISP is called as _____

A. atoms
B. lists
C. list processing
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
2.

A 600-kVA, single-phase transformer with 0.012 pu resistance and 0.06 pu reactance is connected in parallel with a 300-kVA transformer with 0.014 pu resistance and 0.045 pu reactance to share a load of 800 kVA at 0.8 pf lagging. Find how they share the load (a) when both the secondary voltages are 440 V.

A. when both the secondary voltages are 440 V.a) S1= 377+j305.2
B. S2= 377-j305.2
C. S1= 264+ j171.6
D. S1= 377-j305.2
Answer» E.
3.

Which is the correct formula of current flowing through one of the transformers having unequal ratios?

A. I2= E2Z1-(E1-E2) ZL / (Z1Z2 + ZL(Z1+Z2))
B. I1= E2Z1+(E1+E2) ZL / (Z1Z2 + ZL(Z1+Z2))
C. I1= E2Z1-(E1-E2) ZL / (Z1Z2 – ZL(Z1-Z2))
D. I2= E2Z1+(E1-E2) ZL / (Z1Z2 + ZL(Z1+Z2))
Answer» B. I1= E2Z1+(E1+E2) ZL / (Z1Z2 + ZL(Z1+Z2))
4.

Maximum load kVA is _____________________

A. greater than addition of individual rated kVAs
B. lesser than addition of individual rated kVAs
C. equal to addition of individual rated kVAs
D. depends on the loading condition
Answer» C. equal to addition of individual rated kVAs
5.

Which is the correct formula for current flowing through the transformer 1, when they’re having equal voltage ratio?

A. I1= Z2/(Z1+Z2) *IL
B. I2= Z2/(Z1+Z2) *IL
C. I1= Z1/(Z1+Z2) *IL
D. I1= Z2/(Z1-Z2) *IL
Answer» B. I2= Z2/(Z1+Z2) *IL
6.

If two transformers’ secondaries are connected to each other with unequal primary voltage ratio then, __________

A. no circulating current will flow
B. very high short circuit current will flow
C. small circulating current will flow
D. insufficient information
Answer» D. insufficient information
7.

If the primary voltages at two transformers V1 and V2 are not equal then on load, we’ll get ____________

A. V1-V2 at secondary
B. E1-E2 at secondary
C. V1+V2 at secondary
D. E1+E2 at secondary
Answer» C. V1+V2 at secondary
8.

A virus that destroys the immunity of the body and can spread through blood is __________

A. HIV
B. Gonorrhea
C. Anemia
D. Hemophilia
Answer» B. Gonorrhea
9.

Hemophilia is more dominant in _________

A. Males
B. Females
C. Young children
D. Transvestite
Answer» B. Females
10.

Anaemia is caused due to deficiency of _________

A. Haemoglobin
B. Fibrin
C. Thrombin
D. Neutrophils
Answer» B. Fibrin
11.

Which of the following tests can be performed on the extracted blood?i) HIV ii) Diabetes iii) Hepatitis B surface antigen iv) Malaria v) Antibody to Hepatitis C vi) Serological test for Syphilis vii) Dengue viii) Creatinine

A. i, iii, v, vi
B. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, viii, viii
C. ii, iv, vii, viii
D. i, v, viii
Answer» B. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, viii, viii
12.

On collecting blood, what solution is added to it?

A. sodium citrate
B. potassium citrate
C. sodium phosphate
D. potassium phosphate
Answer» B. potassium citrate
13.

Interferon-α is synthesized by lymphocytes.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
14.

The gene for Interferon-gamma is located on chromosome 18.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
15.

Which of the following surface molecule is used by the Coxsackie B virus as a receptor?

A. IgA
B. MHC I
C. CAR
D. DC-SIGN
Answer» D. DC-SIGN
16.

The active form of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is a ________________

A. tetramer
B. trimer
C. dimer
D. monomer
Answer» D. monomer
17.

The gene for Interferon-β is located on _______________

A. chromosome 9
B. chromosome 4
C. chromosome 12
D. chromosome 10
Answer» B. chromosome 4
18.

Which of the following is programmed cell death?

A. Necrosis
B. Toxicity
C. Apoptosis
D. Infection
Answer» D. Infection
19.

Which of the following RNA Polymerase is insensitive to α-amanitin?

A. Pol II
B. Pol IV
C. Pol III
D. Pol I
Answer» E.
20.

An antiterminator protein is encoded by ____________

A. cro
B. N
C. cII
D. R
Answer» C. cII
21.

Which of the following component in genetic control encodes a repressor protein of 236 amino acids?

A. cI
B. cII
C. cIII
D. N
Answer» B. cII
22.

The error rate during RNA replication is approximately _____________

A. 10-5 to 10-7
B. 10-7 to 10-9
C. 10-3 to 10-5
D. 10-1 to 10-3
Answer» D. 10-1 to 10-3
23.

Replicases are used in _______________

A. translation
B. replication
C. transcription
D. post-translation
Answer» C. transcription
24.

If unit area of grain boundary advances a distance 4mm, the number of moles of material that enter in the grain B is 4* (1/ 8(mm3/mol)) and the free energy released is given by_______ (ΔG =10kJ/mol)

A. 5 kJ/mol*mm2
B. 20 kJ/mol*mm2
C. 10 kJ/mol*mm2
D. 40 kJ/mol*mm2
Answer» B. 20 kJ/mol*mm2
25.

On heating to a sufficiently high temperature, what happens to the new grains?

A. They fall off
B. They disperse
C. Velocity decreases
D. They grow and nucleate
Answer» E.
26.

It is possible that the higher mobility of special grain boundaries plays a role in the development of recrystallization textures.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
27.

For low mole fractions of solute in the matrix 0.5 (Xo), the boundary solute concentration Xb (in 10-12) is given by_____ (ΔG =105kJ/Mol, T =505K)

A. 6.94
B. 7.94
C. 6.14
D. 9.80
Answer» B. 7.94
28.

During recrystallization, the boundaries between the new strain-free grains and the original deformed grains are acted on by a force ΔG /V where, in this case, ΔG is due to the difference in dislocation strain energy between the two grains.

A. False
B. True
Answer» C.
29.

Calculate the chemical potential if the molar volume is given as 5 mm3/mol? (Given the value of radius as 4mm and the interfacial energy γ is 8 kJ/mm2?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 24
D. 22
Answer» C. 24
30.

Calculate the pulling force F, if the chemical potential and the molar volume is given as respectively?

A. ΔG-V
B. ΔG+V
C. ΔG/V
D. ΔG*V
Answer» D. ΔG*V
31.

Under which of the following circumstances the grain boundary behaves as a thin soap film?

A. When the boundary energy is dependent on the orientation
B. When boundary energy is 0
C. When the torque is greater than zero
D. When the boundary energy is independent on the orientation
Answer» E.
32.

What will be the torque acting on the boundary if the boundary happens to be at the orientation of a cusp in the free energy?

A. 500 Nm
B. Greater than 500 Nm
C. Less than 500 Nm
D. Zero
Answer» E.
33.

What is the need for a grain boundary in an annealed material?

A. To control the grain size
B. To maintain its shape
C. It can produce a stable equilibrium at the grain edges
D. During annealing it produce a metastable equilibrium at the grain boundary intersections
Answer» E.
34.

When two grains meet in a plane it is known as _____

A. Grain corner
B. Grain boundary
C. Grain edge
D. Grain center
Answer» C. Grain edge
35.

When the two grains are related by a rotation about a axis, there are several large-angle orientations which have significantly lower energies than the random boundaries.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
36.

When the two grains are related by a rotation about a axis, it can be seen that most high-angle boundaries have _____

A. Almost same energy
B. Different energy
C. Highly ordered structure
D. Nothing can be said about their energies
Answer» B. Different energy
37.

The friction coefficient of coarse aggregate should be more than 55.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
38.

The details of the Los Angeles test conducted on a sample is given below:Weight of sample taken = 5 kgWeight of sample retained = 3.16 kgWhat is the Los Angeles abrasion value for the sample?

A. 36.81%
B. 37%
C. 36.8%
D. 36%
Answer» D. 36%
39.

What would be the width of a slot in the thickness gauge if the sieve sets are 20 mm and 16 mm?

A. 20.2 mm
B. 32.4 mm
C. 10.8 mm
D. 13.5 mm
Answer» D. 13.5 mm
40.

The polished stone value of an aggregate is reported as the ______ of the two values of ______

A. Mean, abrasion number
B. Mean, skid number
C. Sum, skid number
D. Sum, abrasion number
Answer» C. Sum, skid number
41.

Which of the below test – procedure pairs are matched correctly?

A. Impact test – 2 layers tamped 25 times each
B. Angularity number – 3 layers tamped 100 times each
C. Bulk density – 2 layers tamped 25 times each
D. Crushing value – 3 layers tamped 50 times each
Answer» C. Bulk density – 2 layers tamped 25 times each
42.

The aggregate impact test was conducted on a sample and the following readings were taken:Weight of sample taken () = 350 gWeight of sample passing 2.36 mm sieve () = 92 gWhat will be the aggregate impact value for the sample?

A. 26%
B. 26 g
C. 26.29 g
D. 26.29%
Answer» E.
43.

After the abrasion test, the sample is passed through which sieve?

A. 2.36 mm
B. 1.45 mm
C. 1.7 mm
D. 2.5 mm
Answer» D. 2.5 mm
44.

What is used as a charge in the Dorry abrasion test?

A. Sand
B. Steel balls
C. Steel shavings
D. Crushed gravel
Answer» B. Steel balls
45.

The combined index is obtained by ¬______ the flakiness and elongation index.

A. Subtracting
B. Adding
C. Taking average
D. Multiplying
Answer» C. Taking average
46.

The result for soundness test is expressed in terms of ______

A. Percentage density gain
B. Percentage density loss
C. Percentage weight loss
D. Percentage weight gain
Answer» D. Percentage weight gain
47.

There are six types of tests to conduct the adhesion test on aggregates.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
48.

The following particulars are obtained after conducting the test for angularity number:Volume of cylinder = 3000 gSpecific gravity = 2.68 What is the angularity number for the above sample?

A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 0.4
D. 1View Answer
Answer» E.
49.

What is the weight of the charge used in the Los Angeles abrasion test?

A. 416.67 mg
B. 450.55 mg
C. 450.55 g
D. 416.67 g
Answer» E.
50.

In a length gauge used for determination of elongation index, what is the length of gauge size for sieve sets 25 mm and 20 mm?

A. 25.65
B. 40.5
C. 81
D. 32.4
Answer» C. 81