Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

A pneumatic sewage ejector includes a tank for holding _________

A. Fluid sewage
B. Horizontally sewage
C. Axial sewage
D. Radial sewage
Answer» B. Horizontally sewage
2.

The injection pumps used in most diesel engines can create up to ________

A. 300 psi
B. 3000 psi
C. 30000 psi
D. 3 psi
Answer» D. 3 psi
3.

A gear pump uses ___________

A. Petrochemical pumps
B. Meshing of gears
C. Froth pumps
D. Airlift pumps
Answer» C. Froth pumps
4.

The lowest portion of the capacity-elevation curve of a proposed irrigation reservoir draining 20 km2 of catchment is represented by the following data:i. The rate of silting for the catchment = 300 m3 / km2 / yearii. Life of the reservoir = 50 yearsiii. Dead storage = 30iv. The FSD of the canal at the head = 80 cmv. The crop water requirement = 250 ha.mvi. Dependable yield of the catchment = 0.29 mCalculate the gross capacity of the reservoir.

A. 287.5 ha.m
B. 317.5 ha.m
C. 580 ha.m
D. 37.5 ha.m
Answer» C. 580 ha.m
5.

A steep slope of the flow duration curve indicates a stream with _________________

A. highly variable discharge
B. small variability of flow
C. considerable base flow
D. large flood plains
Answer» B. small variability of flow
6.

A flow duration curve is a curve plotted between ________________

A. Accumulated flow v/s time
B. Discharge v/s time
C. (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
D. Streamflow v/s Percent of time the flow is equaled or exceeded
Answer» E.
7.

A sequent peak algorithm is a plot between __________________

A. Accumulated flow v/s time
B. Discharge v/s time
C. (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
D. Mass outflow v/s time
Answer» E.
8.

The capacity-inflow ratio for a reservoir _________________

A. is a constant factor overtime
B. increases with time
C. decreases with time
D. may increase or decrease with time
Answer» D. may increase or decrease with time
9.

Capacity inflow ratio for a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of _______________________

A. reservoir capacity to the average annual flood inflow
B. reservoir capacity to the average annual sediment inflow
C. the dead storage capacity of the reservoir to the average annual sediment deposited
D. total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
Answer» B. reservoir capacity to the average annual sediment inflow
10.

Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of ___________________

A. total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
B. total sediment deposited in a given period to the total sediment inflow in that period
C. total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir to the dead storage capacity of the reservoir
D. reservoir capacity to the total annual sediment
Answer» C. total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir to the dead storage capacity of the reservoir
11.

With the reduction in reservoir capacity over the passage of time, the trap efficiency ___________

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending upon the reservoir characteristics
Answer» C. remains unaffected
12.

The reservoir capacity cannot exceed the catchment yield.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
13.

The design annual rainfall for the catchment of a proposed reservoir has been computed to be 99 cm. The catchment area contributing to the proposed reservoir is 1000 sq.km having a mean annual temperature of 20°C. Calculate the annual design catchment yield for the reservoir using Khosla’s formula.

A. 89.4 M.m3
B. 8.94 M.m3
C. 894 m3
D. 894 M.m3
Answer» E.
14.

According to Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory, Hygiene Factors are also known as ______

A. Maintenance factors
B. Motivation factors
C. Mission factors
D. Machine factors
Answer» B. Motivation factors
15.

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, esteem needs are of two types.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
16.

According to Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory, Motivation factors and Hygiene factors are also known as _________ and _________

A. Satisfiers, Satisfiers
B. Dissatisfiers, Satisfiers
C. Satisfiers, Dissatisfiers
D. Dissatisfiers, Dissatisfiers
Answer» D. Dissatisfiers, Dissatisfiers
17.

Which of the following is not a Hygiene factor according to Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory?

A. Supervisors
B. Working conditions
C. Interpersonal relationships
D. Advancement and Growth
Answer» E.
18.

Which of the following is not a Motivation factor according to Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory?

A. Achievement
B. Recognition
C. Responsibility
D. Pay and security
Answer» E.
19.

Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory is also known as ____________

A. Motivation – hygiene theory
B. Motivation theory
C. Hygiene theory
D. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
Answer» B. Motivation theory
20.

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the low-level needs can be satisfied by monetary and non – monetary compensations.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
21.

Which of the following needs according to Maslow’s hierarchy belong to the category of low-level needs?

A. Survival needs, Safety needs, Esteem needs
B. Survival needs, Safety needs, Social needs
C. Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs
D. Social needs, Esteem needs, Self – actualization needs
Answer» C. Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs
22.

Which of the following needs are also known as self – realization needs?

A. Survival needs
B. Safety needs
C. Social needs
D. Self – actualization needs
Answer» E.
23.

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following does not belong to social needs?

A. Friendship
B. Exchange of feelings and grievances
C. Belongingness
D. Economic security
Answer» E.
24.

If the power radiated by a quarter wave monopole is 100mW, then power radiated by a half wave dipole with doubled current is ______

A. 800mW
B. 400mW
C. 200mW
D. 100mW
Answer» B. 400mW
25.

If the power radiated by a half wave dipole is 100mW then power radiated by a quarter wave monopole under same current input is _____

A. 50mW
B. 200mW
C. 100mW
D. 50W
Answer» B. 200mW
26.

Find the power radiated from the half wave dipole at 2km away with magnetic field at point \(\theta=\frac{\pi}{2}\) is 10μA/m ?

A. 0.576mW
B. 0.576W
C. 0.756W
D. 0.675W
Answer» C. 0.756W
27.

In which of the following the power is radiated through a complete spherical surface?

A. Half-wave dipole
B. Quarter-wave Monopole
C. Both Half-wave dipole & Quarter-wave Monopole
D. Neither Half-wave dipole nor Quarter-wave Monopole
Answer» B. Quarter-wave Monopole
28.

Find the magnetic field if the electric field radiated by the half-wave dipole is 60mV/m?

A. 159μA/m
B. 195μA/m
C. 159mA/m
D. 195mA/m
Answer» B. 195μA/m
29.

Power radiated by a half wave dipole is how many times the power radiated by a quarter wave monopole under same input current to antennas?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Answer» B. 3
30.

If the power radiated by a quarter-wave monopole is 100mW then power radiated by a half wave dipole under same current input is _____

A. 100W
B. 100mW
C. 200W
D. 200mW
Answer» E.
31.

The average radiated power of half-wave dipole is given by ______

A. \(73I_{rms}^2\)
B. \(36.5I_{rms}^2\)
C. \(13.25I_{rms}^2\)
D. \(146I_{rms}^2\)
Answer» B. \(36.5I_{rms}^2\)
32.

If the current input to the antenna is 100mA, then find the average power radiated from the half-wave dipole antenna?

A. 365mW
B. 0.356mW
C. 0.365mW
D. 356mW
Answer» B. 0.356mW
33.

_____________ defines a group of content that should be used as a figure and may be labeled by a legend element.

A. figure
B. details
C. output
D. aside
Answer» B. details
34.

Calculate the 3-∅ power developed in the IM connected in star using the following data: Vp=7 V, IL=7 A, cosΦ=.6.

A. 88.5 W
B. 88.4 W
C. 88.8 W
D. 88.2 W
Answer» E.
35.

Choose the correct relationship in Star connection with the positive sequence.

A. VL=Vp
B. VL=√3Vp
C. VL=√2Vp
D. IL=√3Ip
Answer» C. VL=√2Vp
36.

Choose the correct relationship in delta connection with the positive sequence.

A. IL=Ip
B. VL=√3Vp
C. VL=Vp
D. IL=√3Ip
Answer» E.
37.

What is the relationship between line and phase current in Star connection with the positive sequence?

A. VL=Vp
B. VL=√9Vp
C. VL=√2Vp
D. IL=Ip
Answer» E.
38.

What is the correct relationship between the phase voltage and line voltage in Delta connection with the positive sequence?

A. VL=Vp
B. VL=√3Vp
C. VL=√2Vp
D. IL=√2Ip
Answer» B. VL=√3Vp
39.

Full form of PWM.

A. Pulse width modulation
B. Pulse run modulation
C. Power width modulation
D. Pulse wisdom mode
Answer» B. Pulse run modulation
40.

Calculate the average power dissipated if the value of the duty cycle is .5 and Pmax=12 W.

A. 6 W
B. 5 W
C. 4 W
D. 3 W
Answer» B. 5 W
41.

Calculate mark to space ratio if the system is on for 20 sec and off for 3 sec.

A. 6.66
B. 4.48
C. 8.2
D. 5.6
Answer» B. 4.48
42.

The unit of the moment of inertia is Joule.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
43.

Calculate the 3-∅ power developed in the IM using the following data: VL=20 V, IL=5 A, cosΦ=.8.

A. 138.56 W
B. 128.41 W
C. 163.78 W
D. 177.59 W
Answer» B. 128.41 W
44.

450-seconds rated motor is preferable for __________

A. Light duty cranes
B. Medium duty cranes
C. Intermittent duty cranes
D. Heavy duty cranes
Answer» B. Medium duty cranes
45.

Voltage rating of the IM depends upon the insulation level.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
46.

Current rating of the IM depends upon the cross-section area of the conductors.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
47.

Which one of the following motor is a 1-Φ AC motor?

A. Synchronous motor
B. Series motor
C. Shunt motor
D. Capacitor run
Answer» E.
48.

What is the output of the given code?

A. 3 ruby
B. Error
C. 2 language
D. None of the mentionedView Answer
Answer» D. None of the mentionedView Answer
49.

The first address in a range of addresses is 14.11.45.96. If the number of addresses in the range is 32, what is the last address?

A. 14.11.44.64
B. 14.11.44.128
C. 14.12.44.128
D. 14.11.45.127
Answer» E.
50.

Find the number of addresses in a range if the first address is 146.102.29.0 and last address is 146.102.32.255.

A. 1028
B. 1024
C. 578
D. 512
Answer» C. 578