Explore topic-wise MCQs in Advanced Machining.

This section includes 2460 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Advanced Machining knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

201.

What should be written in the blank of the code for JQuery Code Used to Apply CSS3 Animations?

A. @media
B. @keyframes
C. animation-name
D. !importantView Answer
Answer» C. animation-name
202.

What should be written in the blank of the code for resizing elements in Responsive Web Design with Transitions

A. @media
B. @media screen
C. div
D. transformView Answer
Answer» C. div
203.

Which of the following css property should be used to make a responsive image?

A. float
B. max-width
C. margin-right
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
204.

If virtual function of base class is redefined in derived class then ________________

A. It must be declared virtual in derived class also
B. It may or may not be declared virtual in derived class
C. It can must not be declared virtual in derived class
D. It must be declared normally in derived class
Answer» C. It can must not be declared virtual in derived class
205.

Which among the following is true?

A. A class may have virtual destructor but not virtual constructor
B. A class may have virtual constructor but not virtual destructor
C. A class may have virtual constructor and virtual constructor
D. A class may have either virtual destructor or virtual constructor
Answer» B. A class may have virtual constructor but not virtual destructor
206.

It is __________ to redefine the virtual function in derived class.

A. Necessary
B. Not necessary
C. Not acceptable
D. Good practice
Answer» C. Not acceptable
207.

The virtual functions must be declared and defined in _____________ class and overridden in ___________ class.

A. Base, base
B. Derived, derived
C. Derived, base
D. Base, derived
Answer» E.
208.

Which among the following is true for virtual functions?

A. Prototype must be different in base and derived class
B. Prototype must be same in base class and derived class
C. Prototype must be given only in base class
D. Prototype must have different signature in base and derived class
Answer» C. Prototype must be given only in base class
209.

Which is a must condition for virtual function to achieve runtime polymorphism?

A. Virtual function must be accessed with direct name
B. Virtual functions must be accessed using base class object
C. Virtual function must be accessed using pointer or reference
D. Virtual function must be accessed using derived class object only
Answer» D. Virtual function must be accessed using derived class object only
210.

Virtual functions can’t be made friend function of other classes.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
211.

Virtual functions can never be made _______________

A. Static function
B. Parameterized function
C. Default argument function
D. Zero parameter function
Answer» B. Parameterized function
212.

In which access specifier should a virtual function be defined?

A. Private
B. Public
C. Protected
D. Default
Answer» C. Protected
213.

The resolving of virtual functions is done at ______________

A. Compile time
B. Interpret time
C. Runtime
D. Writing source code
Answer» D. Writing source code
214.

Where the virtual function should be defined?

A. Twice in base class
B. Derived class
C. Base class and derived class
D. Base class
Answer» E.
215.

Which keyword is used to declare virtual functions?

A. virtual
B. virt
C. anonymous
D. virtually
Answer» B. virt
216.

Virtual functions are mainly used to achieve _____________

A. Compile time polymorphism
B. Interpreter polymorphism
C. Runtime polymorphism
D. Functions code polymorphism
Answer» D. Functions code polymorphism
217.

What does a virtual function ensure for an object, among the following?

A. Correct method is called, regardless of the class defining it
B. Correct method is called, regardless of the object being called
C. Correct method is called, regardless of the type of reference used for function call
D. Correct method is called, regardless of the type of function being called by objects
Answer» D. Correct method is called, regardless of the type of function being called by objects
218.

Virtual function is ______ class function which expected to be redefined in ______ class, so that when reference is made to derived class object using pointer then we can call virtual function to execute ________ class definition version.

A. Base, derived, derived
B. Derived, Derived, Derived
C. Base, derived, base
D. Base, base, derived
Answer» B. Derived, Derived, Derived
219.

The propagation constant of a wave with attenuation and phase constant given by 2 and 3 respectively is

A. 2 – 3j
B. 3 – 2j
C. 2 + 3j
D. 3 + 2j
Answer» D. 3 + 2j
220.

The attenuation constant causes phase distortion and the phase constant causes frequency distortion. State True/False.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
221.

Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is dependent on mRNAs possessing specialized 3’ cap structure.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
222.

In which part of the cell does alphavirus replication take place?

A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Periplasmic space
D. Matrix
Answer» B. Nucleus
223.

Which of the following is an advantage of using alphaviral vectors?

A. Stable transfection
B. Transient transfection
C. Integration does not occur
D. Integration occurs each time
Answer» D. Integration occurs each time
224.

Alphaviruses have ___________

A. Single-stranded RNA
B. Double-stranded RNA
C. Single-stranded DNA
D. Double-stranded DNA
Answer» B. Double-stranded RNA
225.

Which protein does the plasmid from VSV encode?

A. F-protein
B. A-protein
C. G-protein
D. E-protein
Answer» D. E-protein
226.

Self-inactivating vectors contain _____________

A. Suppressors
B. Deletions
C. Promoters
D. Inducers
Answer» C. Promoters
227.

What is FEM of point C in beam BC if we assume beam BC to be fixed?

A. 12
B. -12
C. 36
D. -36
Answer» B. -12
228.

What is FEM of point A in beam AB?

A. 18
B. -18
C. 96
D. -96
Answer» E.
229.

What will be the shear at point C?

A. -11.86
B. 12.86
C. -13.86
D. 14.86
Answer» C. -13.86
230.

What will be the value of mBA, after solving these equations?

A. 3.09
B. 1.54
C. 12.86
D. -3.09
Answer» D. -3.09
231.

When C.T. is connected in series with a line, a large voltage exists across the primary.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
232.

The excitation current of a C.T. _________

A. varies over a fixed range of operation
B. varies over a wide range of normal operation
C. is fixed over a range of operation
D. is fixed always
Answer» C. is fixed over a range of operation
233.

The secondary winding of a P.T. is designed for _________

A. 220 V
B. 2.2 kV
C. 1.1 kV
D. 110 V
Answer» E.
234.

Potential transformer is similar in design to a _________

A. C.T.
B. Step up transformer
C. Power transformer
D. Step down transformer
Answer» D. Step down transformer
235.

Potential transformers are used to measure _________

A. high voltages
B. low voltages
C. high currents
D. low currents
Answer» B. low voltages
236.

In Alkylation, addition of which radical takes place?

A. Hydrogen
B. Halogen
C. Alkyl
D. Aromatic
Answer» D. Aromatic
237.

Which of the following instrument is used for making a study of reflex responses?

A. EEG
B. ECG
C. VCG
D. EMG
Answer» E.
238.

What is the diameter of silver electrodes in the amplifier circuit of Johnson et al?

A. 2 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 10 mm
Answer» D. 10 mm
239.

Which of the following interpreter can diagnose various muscular disorders by listening to the sounds produced when the muscle potentials are fed to loudspeaker?

A. EEG
B. ECG
C. VCG
D. EMG
Answer» E.
240.

What is necessary for providing a common reference for measurement?

A. active electrode
B. ground electrode
C. tape recorder
D. oscilloscope
Answer» C. tape recorder
241.

EMG instrument contain frequency component extending up to ____________ Khz.

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer» D. 15
242.

What is the typical range of EMG signals?

A. 0.025 to 0.050 mV
B. 0.050 to 0.1 mV
C. 0.1 to 0.5 mV
D. 0.5 to 1 mV
Answer» D. 0.5 to 1 mV
243.

The amplitude of EMG signals depend upon which of the following factor?

A. Respiration
B. Position of electrode
C. Blood Resistivity
D. Ventricular Volume
Answer» C. Blood Resistivity
244.

Which of the following instrument is used for recording the electrical activity of the muscles?

A. ECG
B. EMG
C. PCG
D. EEG
Answer» C. PCG
245.

Which of the following is not an effect of air leakage in condensers?

A. Reduced thermal efficiency of steam power plant
B. Increased requirement of cooling water
C. Increase in corrosive action in condenser
D. Increased heat transfer in condenser
Answer» E.
246.

What effect does air leakage in a condenser has on corrosion?

A. Air leakage reduces corrosion
B. Air leakage increases corrosion
C. Air leakage does not affect corrosion
D. Corrosive action increases or decreases depending upon the degree of leak
Answer» C. Air leakage does not affect corrosion
247.

How does air leakage in condensers affect the heat transfer rate?

A. Heat transfer is reduced
B. Heat transfer is increased
C. Heat transfer rate is not affected by air leakage
D. Heat transfer rate increases or decreases depending on the rate of air leakage
Answer» B. Heat transfer is increased
248.

How does air leakage in a condenser affect the requirement of cooling water?

A. Air leakage reduces the amount of cooling water required
B. Air leakage increases the amount of cooling water required
C. Air leakage doesn’t affect the amount of cooling water required
D. Amount of cooling water required increases or decreases depending upon the rate of air leakage
Answer» C. Air leakage doesn’t affect the amount of cooling water required
249.

What is the effect of air leakage in condensers on thermal efficiency of the steam power plant?

A. Thermal efficiency gets lowered
B. Thermal efficiency increases
C. Thermal efficiency remains unchanged
D. It increases or decreases depending upon the degree of leak
Answer» B. Thermal efficiency increases
250.

Which of the following statement about condensers is FALSE?

A. Jet condensers are more suitable for high capacity plants owing to their high vacuum efficiency
B. Surface condensers require more cooling water than jet condensers
C. As compared to surface condensers, jet condensers require smaller floor space
D. The manufacturing cost of surface condensers is greater than that of jet condensers
Answer» B. Surface condensers require more cooling water than jet condensers