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This section includes 233 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Control Systems knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
151. |
The rate at which monolithic devices transfer drugs to the patient body is proportional to _______________ of time |
A. | Square of time |
B. | The square root of time |
C. | Twice the time |
D. | Half the time |
Answer» C. Twice the time | |
152. |
Which of the following is a characteristic of aqueous solutions? |
A. | Free flowing powders |
B. | Drug release can be increased by increasing viscosity |
C. | Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil |
D. | Administration of emulsions |
Answer» C. Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil | |
153. |
Loading of the entrapped agents before/during the manufacture procedure is known as |
A. | Active loading |
B. | Passive loading |
C. | Both a and b |
D. | None of the above |
Answer» C. Both a and b | |
154. |
What are the characteristics of osmotic pressure-controlled systems? |
A. | Buffering agents that adjust pH to the desired value |
B. | Releases the drug at a zero-order kinetics |
C. | Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane |
D. | Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins |
Answer» C. Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane | |
155. |
Which of the following drugs cannot be given as transdermal administration? |
A. | Drugs with very short half-lives |
B. | Drugs with narrow therapeutic indices |
C. | Easy removal and termination |
D. | Drugs against peptic ulcer |
Answer» E. | |
156. |
With aqueous solutions, the drug releases can be controlled. Which of the following is not the rightmethod of controlling? |
A. | Increasing the viscosity |
B. | By forming complexes with macromolecules |
C. | Reducing the solubility of the parent drug |
D. | Increasing the pH to make it highly basic |
Answer» E. | |
157. |
A drug solution has half life of 21 days. Assuming that drug undergoes first order kinetics, how longwill it take for the potency to drop to 90% of initial potency? |
A. | 3.2 days |
B. | 9.6 days |
C. | 16 days |
D. | 6.2 days |
Answer» B. 9.6 days | |
158. |
Which of the following drugs are used in implants? |
A. | Pantoprazole |
B. | Mannitol |
C. | Amlodipine |
D. | Morphine antagonist |
Answer» E. | |
159. |
What is the characteristics of altered density systems? |
A. | Release the drug along the entire length of GIT |
B. | Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release |
C. | Release only at a specific drug |
D. | Use of high or low density pellets |
Answer» E. | |
160. |
Liposomes with ___________number of lamella are called as “pauci -lamellar liposomes” |
A. | Lower |
B. | Higher |
C. | Single |
D. | None of the above |
Answer» B. Higher | |
161. |
Ketoconazole liposomes are given by |
A. | Lungs |
B. | Oral |
C. | Transdermal |
D. | Intravenous |
Answer» D. Intravenous | |
162. |
Which of the following is a characteristic of resealed erythrocytes? |
A. | Nonimmunogenic |
B. | Aqueous solutions |
C. | Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil |
D. | Size range 10-100 nm |
Answer» B. Aqueous solutions | |
163. |
Osmotic pressure controlled systems work on the principle of osmotic pressure releasing the drug at constant 1st order kinetics. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | none |
D. | all |
Answer» C. none | |
164. |
Passive Loading Technique includes |
A. | Lyophilization |
B. | Proliposomes |
C. | Solvent dispersion |
D. | Both a and b |
Answer» D. Both a and b | |
165. |
Larger particle size leads to ____________ dissolution |
A. | Slower |
B. | Faster |
C. | Moderate |
D. | Normal |
Answer» B. Faster | |
166. |
Amphotericin B liposomes are given |
A. | Lungs |
B. | Oral |
C. | Transdermal |
D. | Intravenous |
Answer» C. Transdermal | |
167. |
What is the characteristics of intestinal release systems? |
A. | Release the drug along the entire length of GIT |
B. | Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release |
C. | Usage of polymers that dissolves only in the alkaline pH of colon |
D. | Use of enteric coating |
Answer» E. | |
168. |
The drug loading in resealed erythrocytes can be done by 1st immersing the cells in a bufferedhypertonic solution. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
C. | none |
D. | all |
Answer» C. none | |
169. |
Which of the following is a characteristic of oil solutions? |
A. | Free flowing powders |
B. | Aqueous solutions |
C. | Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil |
D. | Administration of emulsions |
Answer» D. Administration of emulsions | |
170. |
Solvent vaporization is also known as |
A. | Ether injection |
B. | Ethanol injection |
C. | Double emulsification |
D. | Reverse-phase evaporation |
Answer» B. Ethanol injection | |
171. |
What are the characteristics of ion exchange resin drug complexes? |
A. | Release the drug along the entire length of GIT |
B. | Drug disperse in an insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials |
C. | Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane |
D. | Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins |
Answer» E. | |
172. |
The Fanning friction factor ________ on adding Fins. |
A. | Increases |
B. | Decreases |
C. | Remains the same |
D. | Very large change beyond measure |
Answer» B. Decreases | |
173. |
The wetted perimeter ______ on adding fins hence the flow area _____ |
A. | Increases, Decreases |
B. | Decreases, Increases |
C. | Increases, Increases |
D. | Decreases, Decreases |
Answer» B. Decreases, Increases | |
174. |
The equivalent diameter on the shell side _____ on adding fins. |
A. | Increases |
B. | Decreases |
C. | Remains the same |
D. | Very large change beyond measure |
Answer» C. Remains the same | |
175. |
On which of the following parts fins are usually not attached? |
A. | Baffles |
B. | Outer Tube |
C. | Shell |
D. | Inner surface of tube |
Answer» B. Outer Tube | |
176. |
To which side given below should we add fins? |
A. | Gas Side |
B. | Liquid side |
C. | Solid side |
D. | Any side possible |
Answer» B. Liquid side | |
177. |
Fins are not usually attached to the main body of the heat exchanger by ______ |
A. | Welding |
B. | Glue |
C. | Brazing |
D. | Groove fitting |
Answer» E. | |
178. |
Fins can be added only to one side of a heat exchanger. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
Answer» C. | |
179. |
Which of the following are not affected by adding Fins? |
A. | Net Heat Transfer |
B. | Heat transfer coefficient |
C. | Heat transfer rate |
D. | Turbulence |
Answer» B. Heat transfer coefficient | |
180. |
Fins primarily increase the ______ |
A. | Turbulence |
B. | Heat transfer area |
C. | Heat transfer rate |
D. | Heat transfer coefficient |
Answer» C. Heat transfer rate | |
181. |
Compound flow Fins extended surface heat exchangers are classification based on______ |
A. | Construction |
B. | Flow pattern |
C. | Phase pattern |
D. | Heat transfer mechanism |
Answer» C. Phase pattern | |
182. |
Plate type Extended Fins HE is a classification based on the _____ of the heat exchanger. |
A. | Construction |
B. | Flow pattern |
C. | Phase pattern |
D. | Heat transfer mechanism |
Answer» B. Flow pattern | |
183. |
In case of Classification based on construction, extended surface heat exchangers can be classified into _________ |
A. | Plate Fin and Tube Fin |
B. | Cross Parallel and Plate Fin |
C. | Tube Fin and Cross Parallel |
D. | Compound flow and Tube Fin |
Answer» B. Cross Parallel and Plate Fin | |
184. |
Compound flow Extended surface heat exchangers are superior to Counter flow operation. |
A. | True |
B. | False |
Answer» B. False | |
185. |
Extended Surface heat exchangers are a subset of the broader category of _____ flow type Heat Exchangers. |
A. | Multi Pass |
B. | Single Pass |
C. | Compound |
D. | Split |
Answer» B. Single Pass | |
186. |
What are the three parts of Extended Surface heat exchangers when it is classified based on flow pattern? |
A. | Compound flow, Plate Fin and Cross Counter Flow |
B. | Compound flow, Tube Fin and Cross Counter Flow |
C. | Compound flow, Tube Fin and Plate Fin |
D. | Compound flow, Cross Parallel and Cross Counter Flow |
Answer» E. | |
187. |
In an open field, two parallel pipelines are to be connected by a reverse curve, each section having the same radius. If the center lines are 20 m apart, and the maximum distance between tangent points is 40 m, what is the maximum allowable radius that can be used? |
A. | 20 m |
B. | 40 m |
C. | 32 m |
D. | 60 m |
Answer» B. 40 m | |
188. |
For the construction of a 640 m long B.G. railway track by using a sleeper density of M + 5, and the length of each rail is 12.8 m, the number of sleepers required will be |
A. | 1000 |
B. | 900 |
C. | 800 |
D. | 700 |
Answer» C. 800 | |
189. |
An electric locomotive running at 60 kmph on a curved track of 1.68 m gauge laid at 800 m radius should be provided with superelevation of the rail by an amount of |
A. | 50.5 mm |
B. | 55.5 mm |
C. | 59.5 mm |
D. | 65.5 mm |
Answer» D. 65.5 mm | |
190. |
For a broad gauge railway track on a horizontal curve of radius R ( in m) the equilibrium cant e required for a train moving at a speed of V (in km per hour) is |
A. | \({\rm{e}} = 1.676\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\) |
B. | \({\rm{e}} = 1.315\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\) |
C. | \({\rm{e}} = 0.8\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\) |
D. | \({\rm{e}} = 0.60\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\) |
Answer» C. \({\rm{e}} = 0.8\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\) | |
191. |
As per specifications designed by the Railway Board for trunk routes on Broad gauge tracks, the design speed for the new track is ______ and the maximum speed permissible is _____. |
A. | 160 km/hr, 120 km/hr |
B. | 200 km/hr 120 km/hr |
C. | 180 km/hr, 150 km/hr |
D. | 200 km/hr, 150 km/hr |
Answer» B. 200 km/hr 120 km/hr | |
192. |
A train has to run on BG track having a curvature of 3 degrees and cant of 100 mm. What would be the maximum permissible speed of this train if the allowable cant deficiency is 76 mm? |
A. | 97.8 kmph |
B. | 85.8 kmph |
C. | 78.2 kmph |
D. | 68.2 kmph |
Answer» C. 78.2 kmph | |
193. |
On Indian Railways, the maximum gradient permitted in station yards is 1 in |
A. | 150 |
B. | 100 |
C. | 250 |
D. | 400 |
E. | 600 |
Answer» E. 600 | |
194. |
‘Composite Sleeper Index’ is relevant in determining:1) Required and adoptable sleeper density2) Durability of sleeper units3) Mechanical strength of the stock of wooden sleepersWhich of the above statements is/are correct? |
A. | 1 and 2 only |
B. | 2 and 3 only |
C. | 1 only |
D. | 3 only |
Answer» E. | |
195. |
In the layout of an MG track, the versine of a horizontal circular curve is measured over a 11.8 m chord length. What would be the radius of the curve if the value of the versine was 2 cm? |
A. | 900 m |
B. | 800 m |
C. | 870 m |
D. | 850 m |
Answer» D. 850 m | |
196. |
Ballast filling is done - |
A. | between the two tracks |
B. | on shoulders |
C. | under sleepers |
D. | near the ends of sleepers |
Answer» D. near the ends of sleepers | |
197. |
For bridge span less than 9 m, IRC Class AA and 70R loading of wheeled vehicle, the provision for Impact or Dynamic action (in percentage) is |
A. | 25 |
B. | 20 |
C. | 12 |
D. | 10 |
Answer» B. 20 | |
198. |
Maximum value of 'throw of switch' for Broad gauge track is: |
A. | 89 mm |
B. | 95 mm |
C. | 100 mm |
D. | 115 mm |
Answer» E. | |
199. |
At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in broad gauge is |
A. | 51 |
B. | 62 |
C. | 70 |
D. | 78 |
Answer» D. 78 | |
200. |
On Indian Railways, the maximum gradient permitted in station yards is taken as |
A. | 1 in 200 |
B. | 1 in 300 |
C. | 1 in 400 |
D. | 1 in 500 |
Answer» D. 1 in 500 | |