Explore topic-wise MCQs in Control Systems.

This section includes 233 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Control Systems knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

151.

The rate at which monolithic devices transfer drugs to the patient body is proportional to _______________ of time

A. Square of time
B. The square root of time
C. Twice the time
D. Half the time
Answer» C. Twice the time
152.

Which of the following is a characteristic of aqueous solutions?

A. Free flowing powders
B. Drug release can be increased by increasing viscosity
C. Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
D. Administration of emulsions
Answer» C. Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
153.

Loading of the entrapped agents before/during the manufacture procedure is known as

A. Active loading
B. Passive loading
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Both a and b
154.

What are the characteristics of osmotic pressure-controlled systems?

A. Buffering agents that adjust pH to the desired value
B. Releases the drug at a zero-order kinetics
C. Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
D. Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
Answer» C. Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
155.

Which of the following drugs cannot be given as transdermal administration?

A. Drugs with very short half-lives
B. Drugs with narrow therapeutic indices
C. Easy removal and termination
D. Drugs against peptic ulcer
Answer» E.
156.

With aqueous solutions, the drug releases can be controlled. Which of the following is not the rightmethod of controlling?

A. Increasing the viscosity
B. By forming complexes with macromolecules
C. Reducing the solubility of the parent drug
D. Increasing the pH to make it highly basic
Answer» E.
157.

A drug solution has half life of 21 days. Assuming that drug undergoes first order kinetics, how longwill it take for the potency to drop to 90% of initial potency?

A. 3.2 days
B. 9.6 days
C. 16 days
D. 6.2 days
Answer» B. 9.6 days
158.

Which of the following drugs are used in implants?

A. Pantoprazole
B. Mannitol
C. Amlodipine
D. Morphine antagonist
Answer» E.
159.

What is the characteristics of altered density systems?

A. Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
B. Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
C. Release only at a specific drug
D. Use of high or low density pellets
Answer» E.
160.

Liposomes with ___________number of lamella are called as “pauci -lamellar liposomes”

A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Single
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Higher
161.

Ketoconazole liposomes are given by

A. Lungs
B. Oral
C. Transdermal
D. Intravenous
Answer» D. Intravenous
162.

Which of the following is a characteristic of resealed erythrocytes?

A. Nonimmunogenic
B. Aqueous solutions
C. Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
D. Size range 10-100 nm
Answer» B. Aqueous solutions
163.

Osmotic pressure controlled systems work on the principle of osmotic pressure releasing the drug at constant 1st order kinetics.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» C. none
164.

Passive Loading Technique includes

A. Lyophilization
B. Proliposomes
C. Solvent dispersion
D. Both a and b
Answer» D. Both a and b
165.

Larger particle size leads to ____________ dissolution

A. Slower
B. Faster
C. Moderate
D. Normal
Answer» B. Faster
166.

Amphotericin B liposomes are given

A. Lungs
B. Oral
C. Transdermal
D. Intravenous
Answer» C. Transdermal
167.

What is the characteristics of intestinal release systems?

A. Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
B. Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
C. Usage of polymers that dissolves only in the alkaline pH of colon
D. Use of enteric coating
Answer» E.
168.

The drug loading in resealed erythrocytes can be done by 1st immersing the cells in a bufferedhypertonic solution.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» C. none
169.

Which of the following is a characteristic of oil solutions?

A. Free flowing powders
B. Aqueous solutions
C. Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
D. Administration of emulsions
Answer» D. Administration of emulsions
170.

Solvent vaporization is also known as

A. Ether injection
B. Ethanol injection
C. Double emulsification
D. Reverse-phase evaporation
Answer» B. Ethanol injection
171.

What are the characteristics of ion exchange resin drug complexes?

A. Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
B. Drug disperse in an insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
C. Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
D. Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
Answer» E.
172.

The Fanning friction factor ________ on adding Fins.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Very large change beyond measure
Answer» B. Decreases
173.

The wetted perimeter ______ on adding fins hence the flow area _____

A. Increases, Decreases
B. Decreases, Increases
C. Increases, Increases
D. Decreases, Decreases
Answer» B. Decreases, Increases
174.

The equivalent diameter on the shell side _____ on adding fins.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. Very large change beyond measure
Answer» C. Remains the same
175.

On which of the following parts fins are usually not attached?

A. Baffles
B. Outer Tube
C. Shell
D. Inner surface of tube
Answer» B. Outer Tube
176.

To which side given below should we add fins?

A. Gas Side
B. Liquid side
C. Solid side
D. Any side possible
Answer» B. Liquid side
177.

Fins are not usually attached to the main body of the heat exchanger by ______

A. Welding
B. Glue
C. Brazing
D. Groove fitting
Answer» E.
178.

Fins can be added only to one side of a heat exchanger.

A. True
B. False
Answer» C.
179.

Which of the following are not affected by adding Fins?

A. Net Heat Transfer
B. Heat transfer coefficient
C. Heat transfer rate
D. Turbulence
Answer» B. Heat transfer coefficient
180.

Fins primarily increase the ______

A. Turbulence
B. Heat transfer area
C. Heat transfer rate
D. Heat transfer coefficient
Answer» C. Heat transfer rate
181.

Compound flow Fins extended surface heat exchangers are classification based on______

A. Construction
B. Flow pattern
C. Phase pattern
D. Heat transfer mechanism
Answer» C. Phase pattern
182.

Plate type Extended Fins HE is a classification based on the _____ of the heat exchanger.

A. Construction
B. Flow pattern
C. Phase pattern
D. Heat transfer mechanism
Answer» B. Flow pattern
183.

In case of Classification based on construction, extended surface heat exchangers can be classified into _________

A. Plate Fin and Tube Fin
B. Cross Parallel and Plate Fin
C. Tube Fin and Cross Parallel
D. Compound flow and Tube Fin
Answer» B. Cross Parallel and Plate Fin
184.

Compound flow Extended surface heat exchangers are superior to Counter flow operation.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
185.

Extended Surface heat exchangers are a subset of the broader category of _____ flow type Heat Exchangers.

A. Multi Pass
B. Single Pass
C. Compound
D. Split
Answer» B. Single Pass
186.

What are the three parts of Extended Surface heat exchangers when it is classified based on flow pattern?

A. Compound flow, Plate Fin and Cross Counter Flow
B. Compound flow, Tube Fin and Cross Counter Flow
C. Compound flow, Tube Fin and Plate Fin
D. Compound flow, Cross Parallel and Cross Counter Flow
Answer» E.
187.

In an open field, two parallel pipelines are to be connected by a reverse curve, each section having the same radius. If the center lines are 20 m apart, and the maximum distance between tangent points is 40 m, what is the maximum allowable radius that can be used?

A. 20 m
B. 40 m
C. 32 m
D. 60 m
Answer» B. 40 m
188.

For the construction of a 640 m long B.G. railway track by using a sleeper density of M + 5, and the length of each rail is 12.8 m, the number of sleepers required will be

A. 1000
B. 900
C. 800
D. 700
Answer» C. 800
189.

An electric locomotive running at 60 kmph on a curved track of 1.68 m gauge laid at 800 m radius should be provided with superelevation of the rail by an amount of

A. 50.5 mm
B. 55.5 mm
C. 59.5 mm
D. 65.5 mm
Answer» D. 65.5 mm
190.

For a broad gauge railway track on a horizontal curve of radius R ( in m) the equilibrium cant e required for a train moving at a speed of V (in km per hour) is

A. \({\rm{e}} = 1.676\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\)
B. \({\rm{e}} = 1.315\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\)
C. \({\rm{e}} = 0.8\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\)
D. \({\rm{e}} = 0.60\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\)
Answer» C. \({\rm{e}} = 0.8\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{\rm{R}}}\)
191.

As per specifications designed by the Railway Board for trunk routes on Broad gauge tracks, the design speed for the new track is ______ and the maximum speed permissible is _____.

A. 160 km/hr, 120 km/hr
B. 200 km/hr 120 km/hr
C. 180 km/hr, 150 km/hr
D. 200 km/hr, 150 km/hr
Answer» B. 200 km/hr 120 km/hr
192.

A train has to run on BG track having a curvature of 3 degrees and cant of 100 mm. What would be the maximum permissible speed of this train if the allowable cant deficiency is 76 mm?

A. 97.8 kmph
B. 85.8 kmph
C. 78.2 kmph
D. 68.2 kmph
Answer» C. 78.2 kmph
193.

On Indian Railways, the maximum gradient permitted in station yards is 1 in

A. 150
B. 100
C. 250
D. 400
E. 600
Answer» E. 600
194.

‘Composite Sleeper Index’ is relevant in determining:1) Required and adoptable sleeper density2) Durability of sleeper units3) Mechanical strength of the stock of wooden sleepersWhich of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only
Answer» E.
195.

In the layout of an MG track, the versine of a horizontal circular curve is measured over a 11.8 m chord length. What would be the radius of the curve if the value of the versine was 2 cm?

A. 900 m
B. 800 m
C. 870 m
D. 850 m
Answer» D. 850 m
196.

Ballast filling is done -

A. between the two tracks
B. on shoulders
C. under sleepers
D. near the ends of sleepers
Answer» D. near the ends of sleepers
197.

For bridge span less than 9 m, IRC Class AA and 70R loading of wheeled vehicle, the provision for Impact or Dynamic action (in percentage) is

A. 25
B. 20
C. 12
D. 10
Answer» B. 20
198.

Maximum value of 'throw of switch' for Broad gauge track is:

A. 89 mm
B. 95 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 115 mm
Answer» E.
199.

At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in broad gauge is

A. 51
B. 62
C. 70
D. 78
Answer» D. 78
200.

On Indian Railways, the maximum gradient permitted in station yards is taken as

A. 1 in 200
B. 1 in 300
C. 1 in 400
D. 1 in 500
Answer» D. 1 in 500