Explore topic-wise MCQs in Finance & Accounting.

This section includes 267 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Finance & Accounting knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

A. Materiality is a relative concept
B. Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments
C. Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements
D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only
Answer» E.
2.

…...the audit risks… the materiality and ……the audit effort

A. Lower, Higher, Lower
B. Lower, Lower, Higher
C. Higher, Lower, Lower
D. Lower, Higher, Higher
Answer» B. Lower, Lower, Higher
3.

Test Checking refers to

A. Testing of accounts and records
B. Checking of selected number of transactions
C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries
D. Checking of all transactions recorded
Answer» C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries
4.

When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings shouldbe satisfied that the

A. Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers
B. Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level
C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level
D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
Answer» D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
5.

In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?

A. Prior year’s errors
B. The auditor’s remuneration
C. Adjusted interim financial statements
D. Prior year’s financial statements
Answer» C. Adjusted interim financial statements
6.

Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally

A. Helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
B. Directs attention to potential risk areas
C. Indicates important aspects of business
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
7.

Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedureapplied at substantive stage?

A. It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts
B. It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements
C. It helps to identify possible oversights
D. It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
Answer» E.
8.

For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with AAS14, the use ofanalytical procedures is at the discretion of the auditor in which stage?

A. Substantive testing
B. Planning stage
C. Overall review stage
D. All of the above
Answer» B. Planning stage
9.

Verification refers to :

A. Examining the physical existence and valuation of assets.
B. Examining the journal and ledger
C. Examination of vouchers related to assets.
D. None of the above.
Answer» B. Examining the journal and ledger
10.

Stock should be valued at

A. Cost
B. Market price
C. Cost or Market price whichever is lower.
D. Cost less depreciation.
Answer» D. Cost less depreciation.
11.

‘Auditor is not a valuer’, was stated in

A. Kingston Cotton Mills case
B. London Oil Storage Co. Case
C. London and General Bank case
D. None of the above
Answer» B. London Oil Storage Co. Case
12.

Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?

A. Bank statements obtained from the client
B. Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly.
C. Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
D. Computations made by the auditor
Answer» D. Computations made by the auditor
13.

Goods sold on the basis of ‘sales or return ‘ should

A. Be included in the stock
B. Not be included in the stock
C. Not be checked by auditor
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Not be included in the stock
14.

Floating assets are valued at

A. cost
B. Market price
C. Cost or market price whichever is lower
D. Cost less depreciation
Answer» D. Cost less depreciation
15.

Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the reliability of auditevidence?

A. To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than persuasive
B. Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence
C. Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
D. All are correct.
Answer» C. Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
16.

In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that __

A. May be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions
B. Are designed to discover significant subsequent events
C. Will increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk
D. May be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures
Answer» E.
17.

The nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures is related to assessed level ofcontrol risk

A. Randomly
B. Disproportionately
C. Directly
D. Inversely
Answer» D. Inversely
18.

Which of the following factors is most important in determining the appropriations ofaudit evidence?

A. The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
B. The objectivity and integrity of the auditor
C. The quantity of audit evidence
D. The independence of the source of evidence
Answer» B. The objectivity and integrity of the auditor
19.

Which of the following is not corroborative evidence?

A. Minutes of meetings
B. Confirmations from debtors
C. Information gathered by auditor through observation
D. Worksheet supporting consolidated financial statements
Answer» E.
20.

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to managementrepresentations obtained as per AAS11?

A. Authenticated copy of relevant minutes of meetings may be regarded as management representation
B. It should always be in working
C. It may be dated prior to the report date
D. It should be addressed to the auditor
Answer» C. It may be dated prior to the report date
21.

Which of the following Auditing Assurance Standard deals with Audit Planning?

A. AAS7
B. AAS8
C. AAS9
D. AAS3
Answer» C. AAS9
22.

What would most appropriately describe the risk of incorrect rejection in terms ofsubstantive testing?

A. The auditor concludes balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B. The auditor concludes that the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact it not
C. The auditor has rejected an item for sample which was material
D. None of the above
Answer» C. The auditor has rejected an item for sample which was material
23.

Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?

A. Risk of over reliance
B. Risk of incorrect rejection
C. Risk of incorrect acceptance
D. Both (a) and (c)
Answer» E.
24.

What would most effectively describe the risk of incorrect acceptance in terms ofsubstantive audit testing?

A. The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B. The auditor concludes the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
C. The auditor has rejected an item from sample which was not supported by documentary evidence
D. He applies random sampling on data which is inaccurate and inconsistent
Answer» B. The auditor concludes the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
25.

Audit programme is prepared by

A. The auditor
B. The client
C. The audit assistants
D. The auditor and his audit assistants
Answer» E.
26.

The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are: _

A. Evidence for audit conclusions
B. Owned by the client
C. Owned by the auditor
D. Retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
Answer» D. Retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
27.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programmepreparation?

A. To detect errors or fraud.
B. To comply with GAAP
C. To gather sufficient appropriate evidence
D. To assess audit risk
Answer» D. To assess audit risk
28.

The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affectedby

A. Management’s integrity
B. Auditor’s experience and professional judgment
C. Auditor’s qualification
D. Control risk
Answer» C. Auditor’s qualification
29.

Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?

A. To provide a basis for review of audit work
B. To provide a basis for subsequent audits
C. To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
D. To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
Answer» E.
30.

Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of anauditor’s working papers

A. The assessed level of control risk
B. The possibility of peer review
C. The nature of auditor’s report
D. The content of management representation letter
Answer» E.
31.

Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor’s working papers?

A. They document the level of independence maintained by the auditor
B. They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor’s report
C. They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
D. They help the auditor to monitor the effectiveness of the audit firm’s quality control
Answer» C. They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
32.

The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include

A. Extracts from client’s bank statements
B. Past year’s financial statements
C. Attorney’s letters
D. Debt agreements
Answer» B. Past year’s financial statements
33.

Which of the following statement best describes the understanding with respect toownership and custody of working papers prepared by an auditor?

A. The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to issues raised in litigation
B. The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
C. The working papers must be retained by an audit firm for a period of 10 years
D. Successor auditors may have access to working papers of the predecessor auditors. The approval of client is not required.
Answer» B. The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
34.

Payment for wage should be vouched with the help of

A. Piece Work Statement.
B. Wage sheets
C. Minutes book
D. Bank pass book.
Answer» C. Minutes book
35.

The current file of the auditor’s working papers, generally, should include

A. A flowchart of the internal controls
B. Organisation charts
C. A copy of financial statements
D. Copies of bond and debentures
Answer» D. Copies of bond and debentures
36.

Knowledge of the entity’s business does not help the auditor to

A. Reduce inherent risk
B. Identify problem areas
C. Evaluate reasonableness of estimates
D. Evaluate appropriates of GAAP.
Answer» B. Identify problem areas
37.

Payment for building purchased should be vouched with the help of

A. Title Deed
B. Correspondence with the brokers
C. Building Account
D. Cash book
Answer» B. Correspondence with the brokers
38.

Which of the following expenses should not be treated as capital expenditure?

A. Expenses paid on installation of a plant.
B. Cost of dismantling a building in case a new building is to be constructed on the land
C. Legal expenses incurred to defend a suit related to title of patent. The suit has been lost
D. The fees paid to engineer who constructed the plant.
Answer» D. The fees paid to engineer who constructed the plant.
39.

Which of the following is not a revenue expense?

A. Cost of raising a loan
B. Cost of accessories of motor vehicles spent at the time of purchase
C. Expenses incurred for laying of sewers on land purchased
D. Insurance premium paid at the time of registration of the ship
Answer» C. Expenses incurred for laying of sewers on land purchased
40.

Purchase returns should be vouched with the help of

A. Bought notes
B. Credit notes
C. Goods inward book
D. Cash book
Answer» C. Goods inward book
41.

Receipts from sale of investments should be vouched with the help of

A. Brokers bought notes
B. Brokers Sold notes
C. Minutes book
D. Inventory of investment
Answer» C. Minutes book
42.

Depreciation does not arise form _______

A. Effluxion of time
B. Use
C. Obsolescence through technology be market changes
D. Remarket expectation
Answer» E.
43.

Schedule XIV has prescribed rates of depreciation for double shift and triple shiftworking for which one of the following assets?

A. Building
B. Plant and Machinery
C. Furniture and fittings
D. Ships
Answer» C. Furniture and fittings
44.

Which of the following Schedule of the Companies Act, 1956 deals with depreciations?

A. Schedule XIV
B. Schedule V
C. Schedule XIII
D. Schedule X
Answer» B. Schedule V
45.

A company has bought patents. Which of the following methods is most suitable forproviding depreciation on them?

A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Sum of year digits
D. Any of the above
Answer» B. WDV
46.

Which of the following is a revenue reserve?

A. Capital redemption reserve
B. Security premium account
C. Debenture redemption reserve
D. Capital reserve
Answer» D. Capital reserve
47.

Which of the following will not lead to creation of secret reserve?

A. Undervaluation of closing stock
B. Charging capital expenditure to revenue
C. Goods sent on consignment being shown as actual sales
D. Charging higher rates of depreciation on fixed assets than actually required
Answer» D. Charging higher rates of depreciation on fixed assets than actually required
48.

As per the requirements of section 226(3) and 226(4) a person is disqualified frombeing appointed as a statutory auditor if he holds

A. Equity shares or debentures of the company
B. Equity shares carrying voting of the company
C. Shares carrying voting rights of the company
D. Security carrying voting rights of the company
Answer» E.
49.

The board of directors shall appoint first auditor of a company

A. Within one month of completion of capital subscription state of the company
B. Within one month of the promotion of the company
C. Within one month of the commencement of the business of the company
D. Within one month of incorporation of the company
Answer» E.
50.

The term of the auditor ship of first auditor would be from the date of appointmenttill__

A. the conclusion of statutory meeting
B. the conclusion of first annual general meeting
C. the conclusion of next annual general meeting
D. the date of removal
Answer» C. the conclusion of next annual general meeting