Explore topic-wise MCQs in Electrical Engineering.

This section includes 217 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Electrical Engineering knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

101.

Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field amplifiers.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
102.

Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
103.

In a                    oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the collector towards the electron gun.

A. interaction oscillator
B. backward wave oscillator
C. magnetrons
D. none o the mentioned
Answer» C. magnetrons
104.

In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is parallel to the electric field.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
105.

Microwave tubes are power sources themselves at higher frequencies and can be used independently without any other devices.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
106.

The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a                    type beam amplifier.

A. linear beam
B. crossed field
C. parallel field
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. crossed field
107.

                 is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a reflector electrode after the cavity.

A. backward wave oscillator
B. reflex klystron
C. travelling wave tube
D. magnetrons
Answer» C. travelling wave tube
108.

The production of power at higher frequencies is much simpler than production of power at low frequencies.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
109.

If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6 watt, with the load resistance being equal to

A. 10.1 %
B. 10.21 %
C. 12 %
D. 15.2 %
Answer» C. 12 %
110.

If the critical field in a Gunn diode oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is 20 microns, then the critical voltage is:

A. 3.2 v
B. 6.4 v
C. 2.4 v
D. 6.5 v
Answer» C. 2.4 v
111.

An essential requirement for the BARITT diode is that the intermediate drift region be completely filled to cause the punch through to occur.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
112.

IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization technique which is a noisy mechanism of generating charge carriers.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
113.

If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal frequency of the diode is:

A. 12 ghz
B. 25 ghz
C. 30 ghz
D. 24 ghz
Answer» C. 30 ghz
114.

The resonant frequency of an IMPATT diode is given by:

A. vd/2l
B. vd/l
C. vd/2Ï€l
D. vdd/4Ï€l
Answer» B. vd/l
115.

If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of the carrier is:

A. 10-11 seconds
B. 2×10-11 seconds
C. 2.5×10-11 seconds
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. 2.5×10-11 seconds
116.

To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning, a constant bias source is used to maintain                at safe limit.

A. average current
B. average voltage
C. average bias voltage
D. average resistance
Answer» B. average voltage
117.

3 IMPATT DIODES, SCHOTTKY BARRIER DIODES, PIN DIODES

A. avalanche multiplication
B. break down of depletion region
C. high reverse saturation current
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. break down of depletion region
118.

The material used to fabricate IMPATT diodes is GaAs since they have the highest efficiency in all aspects.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
119.

In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second and the effective length is 20 microns, then the intrinsic frequency is:

A. 5 ghz
B. 6 ghz
C. 4 ghz
D. 2 ghz
Answer» B. 6 ghz
120.

The frequency of oscillation in Gunn diode is given by:

A. vdom/ leff
B. leff/ vdom
C. leff/ wvdom
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. leff/ vdom
121.

In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by a short circuit termination at one end

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
122.

The free electron concentration in N-type GaAs is controlled by:

A. effective doping
B. bias voltage
C. drive current
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. bias voltage
123.

The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Answer» D. five
124.

The modes of operation of a Gunn diode are illustrated in a plot of voltage applied to the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of Gunn diode.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
125.

When either a voltage or current is applied to the terminals of bulk solid state compound GaAs, a differential              is developed in that bulk device.

A. negative resistance
B. positive resistance
C. negative voltage
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. positive resistance
126.

The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made of:

A. molybdenum
B. gaas
C. gold
D. copper
Answer» B. gaas
127.

When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric field, the current in the material:

A. increases linearly
B. decreases linearly
C. increases exponentially
D. decreases exponentially
Answer» B. decreases linearly
128.

In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current generated is constant irrespective of the electric filed applied to the specimen.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
129.

If a power amplifier has an output power of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, then the input drive power is:

A. 400 mw
B. 225 mw
C. 229 mw
D. 240 mw
Answer» D. 240 mw
130.

If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, and the input power supplied to the amplifier is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 35%
Answer» B. 50%
131.

Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers is unpredictable at all input signal levels.

A. true
B. false
Answer» C.
132.

A class B amplifier consists of                 transistors in order to conduct the input signal over the entire cycle.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer» C. 4
133.

Gain of power amplifiers                      with increase in operating frequency.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. increases exponentially
D. decreases exponentially
Answer» C. increases exponentially
134.

Power amplifiers in the increasing order of efficiency is:

A. class a, b, c
B. class c, a, b
C. class b, a, c
D. efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the same
Answer» B. class c, a, b
135.

1 MICROWAVE PASSIVE COMPONENTS: DIRECTIONAL COUPLER, POWER DIVIDER, MAGIC TEE ATTENUATOR, RESONATOR

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
136.

                       amplifiers are linear circuits, where the transistor is biased to conduct over the entire range of the input signal cycle.

A. class a amplifiers
B. class b amplifiers
C. class c amplifiers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. class b amplifiers
137.

Important factors to be considered for power amplifier design are:

A. efficiency
B. gain
C. thermal effect
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» E.
138.

                               are used in the final stages of radar and radio transmitters to increase the radiated power level.

A. power amplifiers
B. oscillators
C. transistors
D. attenuators
Answer» B. oscillators
139.

Which of the following statement about antenna array is false?

A. field pattern is the product of individual elements in array
B. field pattern is the sum of individual elements in array
C. resultant field is the vector superposition of the fields from individual elements in array
D. high directivity can be achieved for long distance communications
Answer» C. resultant field is the vector superposition of the fields from individual elements in array
140.

What is the progressive phase shift of the end-fire array?

A. 0
B. 90 c) 180
C. d) 60
Answer» D.
141.

If the progressive shift in antenna array is equal to zero then it is called

A. broad side
B. end-fire
C. yagi-uda
D. fishbone antenna
Answer» B. end-fire
142.

Total resultant field obtained by the antenna array is given by which of following?

A. vector superposition of individual field from the element
B. maximum field from individual sources in the array
C. minimum field from individual sources in the array
D. field from the individual source
Answer» B. maximum field from individual sources in the array
143.

The electrical size of antenna is increased by antenna array to avoid size lobes compared to single antenna.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
144.

For long distance communication, which of the property is mainly necessary for the antenna?

A. high directivity
B. low directivity
C. low gain
D. broad beam width
Answer» B. low directivity
145.

Electrical size of antenna is increased by which of the following?

A. antenna array
B. decreasing the coverage area
C. increasing the coverage area
D. using a single antenna
Answer» B. decreasing the coverage area
146.

Which of the following is false about the single antenna for long distance communication?

A. enlarging may create side lobes
B. no side lobes
C. high directivity is required
D. high gain is required
Answer» C. high directivity is required
147.

Which of the following is false regarding Antenna array?

A. directivity increases
B. directivity decreases
C. beam width decreases
D. gain increases
Answer» C. beam width decreases
148.

High directivity required in RADAR communication is satisfied using this type of antennas:

A. wide band antennas
B. antenna arrays
C. slot antennas
D. patch antennas
Answer» C. slot antennas
149.

The terminal impedance of a dipole antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of the slot antenna given the intrinsic impedance of air is 377 Ω is:

A. 100 Ω
B. 50 Ω
C. 25 Ω
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. 25 Ω
150.

The antennas which offer high operational bandwidth and the antenna parameters are maintained over a wide range of antennas are called:

A. wide band antennas
B. array antennas
C. parabolic antennas
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. array antennas