If the m term of AP is 1/n and n term 1/m than show that it\’s mn term=1
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Let a and d be the first term and common difference respectively of the given A.P. Thenan = a + (n – 1)d{tex}\\frac { 1 } { n } ={/tex}\xa0mth term\xa0{tex}\\Rightarrow \\frac { 1 } { n } {/tex}= a + ( m – 1 ) d\xa0…(i){tex}\\frac { 1 } { m }{/tex}= nth term{tex}\\Rightarrow \\frac { 1 } { m } {/tex}= a + ( n – 1 ) d\xa0…(ii)On subtracting equation (ii) from equation (i), we get{tex}\\frac { 1 } { n } – \\frac { 1 } { m } = {/tex} [a+ (m-1) d] -[ a+ (n -1)d]= a + md – d – a – nd + d{tex}= ( m – n ) d{/tex}{tex} \\Rightarrow \\frac { m – n } { m n } = ( m – n ) d {/tex}{tex}\\Rightarrow d = \\frac { 1 } { m n }{/tex}Putting d = {tex}\\frac { 1 } { m n }{/tex}\xa0in equation (i), we get{tex}\\frac { 1 } { n } = a + \\frac { ( m – 1 ) } { m n } {/tex}{tex}\\Rightarrow \\frac { 1 } { n } = a + \\frac { 1 } { n } – \\frac { 1 } { m n } {/tex}{tex}\\Rightarrow a = \\frac { 1 } { m n }{/tex}{tex}\\therefore{/tex}\xa0(mn)th term = a + (mn – 1) d=\xa0{tex}\\frac { 1 } { m n } + ( m n – 1 ) \\frac { 1 } { m n } {/tex}{tex}\\left[ \\because a = \\frac { 1 } { m n } = d \\right]{/tex}= {tex}\\frac { 1 } { m n } + \\frac { mn } { m n } – \\frac { 1 } { m n }{/tex}= 1