Let \[z\]be a purely imaginary number such that \[\operatorname{Im}\,(z)>0\]. Then \[arg(z)\] is equal to

Let \[z\]be a purely imaginary number such that \[\operatorname{Im}\,(

1.	Let \[z\]be a purely imaginary number such that \[\operatorname{Im}\,(z)>0\]. Then \[arg(z)\] is equal to
A.	\[\pi \]
B.	\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]
C.	0
D.	\[-\frac{\pi }{2}\]
Answer» C. 0

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Let \[z\]be a purely imaginary number such that \[\operatorname{Im}\,(z)>0\]. Then \[arg(z)\] is equal to

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