1.

Let f be a mapping from X = {1, 2, 3, ....., 50} to itself such that for m, n ϵ X, m ≤ n implies that f(m) ≤ f(n). Then which of the following is true?

A. There is m ϵ X such that f(m) = m
B. For every m ϵ X, we may have f(m) = m - 1
C. For every m ϵ X, we may have f(m) = m + 1
D. For every even m ϵ X, we must have f(m) = 1/2 m
Answer» B. For every m ϵ X, we may have f(m) = m - 1


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