If \[g(1)=g(2)\], then \[\int_{1}^{2}{{{\left[ fg(x) \right]}^{-1}}}f'\{g(x)\}\ g'(x)\ dx\]is equal to [AMU 2005]

If \[g(1)=g(2)\], then \[\int_{1}^{2}{{{\left[ fg(x) \right]}^{-1}}}f'

1.	If \[g(1)=g(2)\], then \[\int_{1}^{2}{{{\left[ fg(x) \right]}^{-1}}}f'\{g(x)\}\ g'(x)\ dx\]is equal to [AMU 2005]
A.	1
B.	2
C.	0
D.	None of these
Answer» D. None of these

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If \[g(1)=g(2)\], then \[\int_{1}^{2}{{{\left[ fg(x) \right]}^{-1}}}f'\{g(x)\}\ g'(x)\ dx\]is equal to [AMU 2005]

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