A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm from the anal verge. A CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis showed no evidence of metastatic disease. An MR scan of pelvis showed an anterior tumour abutting the prostate gland, radiologically staged as a T3, N1, M0 cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm

1.	A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm from the anal verge. A CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis showed no evidence of metastatic disease. An MR scan of pelvis showed an anterior tumour abutting the prostate gland, radiologically staged as a T3, N1, M0 cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.	abdominoperineal resection
B.	chemotherapy
C.	long-course chemoradiation
D.	short-course radiotherapy
E.	total mesorectal excision
Answer» D. short-course radiotherapy

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