A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family.What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation

1.	A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family.What is the most appropriate treatment?
A.	brachytherapy
B.	chemo-radiotherapy
C.	excision cone biopsy only
D.	radical hysterectomy
E.	vaginal trachelectomy
Answer» E. vaginal trachelectomy

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A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family.What is the most appropriate treatment?

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