A 40 year old female patient presents with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 year.These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 year back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient:

• A. SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs
• B. No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
• C. Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs
• D. Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs