1.

A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells, favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is:

A. Vaginal hysterectomy
B. Radical hysterectomy/Radiotherapy
C. Cold-knife conization of the cervix
D. Loop excision of the cervical tranformation zone
E. none
Answer» D. Loop excision of the cervical tranformation zone


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