A 20 year old full-term primigravida is brought to the casualty with labour pains for last 24 hours and a hand prolapse. On examination, she has pulse 96/min, BP 120/80 mm Hg, and mild pallor. The abdominal examination reveals the uterine height at 32 weeks, the foetus in transverse lie and absent foetal heart sounds. On vaginal examination, the left arm of the foetus is prolapsed and the foetal ribs are palpable. The pelvis is adequate. What would be the best management option ?

• A. External cephalic version
• B. Decapitation and delivering the baby vaginally
• C. Internal podalic version
• D. Lower Segment Caesarean section
• E. none